2013年7月31日星期三

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Code d'Examen: MB6-871J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Financials (MB6-871日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-463J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012 (070-463日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-463J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012 (70-463日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-487J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Developing Windows Azure and Web Services (070-487日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-487J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Developing Windows Azure and Web Services (70-487日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 あなたは 3 つの Execute SQL タスクを含 む SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS )パッ ケ
ージを編集しています。 データ? ウェゕハウ ス? ロードに備えてテーブルを示す際に、3 つの
SQL タスクは製品を修正します。 パッケージと全 3 つの Execute SQL 製品タスクはそれらの
TransactionOption プロ パテゖを Supported に セットしておきます。3 つの Execute SQL 製品 タ
スクの中の一つが失敗する場合、 すべての 3 つのタスクが自分の変更をロールバックするこ
とを確認する必要があります。何を行わなければなりませんか。
A. パッケージ の TransactionOption プロパテゖ を Required に変更する 。
B. 3 つのすべての Execute SQL 製品タスクの TransactionOption プロ パテゖを Required に変 更
する。
C. 3 つの Execute SQL 製 品タスクを Foreach Loop コンテナに持ち込む。
D. 3 つの Execute SQL 製品タスクを Sequence コンテナに持ち込む。
Answer: A

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NO.2 あなたは ABC.com でデータベース開発者として働いています。ABC.com のネットワ ー
クは ABC.com という単 一のドメ゗ンで構成されています。 ABC.com は自分の環境で Microsoft
SQL Server 2012 を使用 しています。 SQL サーバー統合サービス(SSIS) パッケージを修正するよ
うに依頼されました。 パッケージは Execute SQL タスクを含むだけです。
Execute SQL タスクが失 敗する場合に、 すべての Execute SQL タスク によって行われた変更は
ロ ー ル バ ッ ク さ れ る こ と を 保 証 す る 必 要 が あ り ま す 。 こ れ を 行 う た め に 、 パ ッ ケ ー ジ の
TransactionOption プロ パテゖを変更したいと思っています。
下記の どれ がパ ッケ ー ジの TransactionOption プロ パテゖ のた めに セット され なけ れば な ら
ない値ですか。
A. NotSupported.
B. Supported.
C. NotRequired.
D. Required.
Answer: D

Microsoft   070-463J   070-463J   070-463J

NO.3 あなたは Server Integration Services (SSIS )パッケージのトラブルシューテゖングを処
理しています。 いくつかの場合において、 パッケージ実行が終了しません。 また、 データは
転送された ように は見 えません。 パッ ケー ジログ記録 が生じ るこ とを保証す る必要 があ り
ます。
あなた のソリューションは展開と開発の努力を最小限に抑える必要があります。 何を行わな
ければなりませんか。
A. SSIS プロジェクトに OnError ゗ベントハンドラを追加する。
B. サーバー上のパッ ケージを展開する msi フゔ゗ルを使用する。
C. コマンド? プロンプ トを開き、gacutil コマンドを実行する。
D. コマンド? プロンプトを開き、dtutil/copy コマンドを実行する。
E. コマンド? プロンプトを開き、dtexec /rep /conn コマンドを実行 する。
F. コマンド? プロンプトを開き 、dtexec/dumperror/conn コマンドを 実行する。
G. dtexecui.exe ユーテゖリテゖと SQL ログプロバ゗ダを使用してパッケージを実行する。
H. 再利用可能なカス タムロギング· コンポーネントを作成し、SSIS プロジェクトでそれを使
用する。
I. プロジェクト配備モ デルを使用するために SSIS ソリューションを構成する。
J. データ? タッ プを使 用する ために パッケ ー ジ? デ ータ? フ ロー 中の コンポ ーネン トの出 力 を
構成する。
K. SSIS カタログにパッケージを展開し、SQL サーバーで配置を格納するために dtutil コマ ン
ドを実行する。
Answer: A

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NO.4 あなたは ABC.com の上級データベース管理者として働いています。ABC.com のネッ ト
ワークは ABC.com というシングル? ドメ゗ンで構成されています。ABC.com は自分の環境 で
Microsoft SQL Server 2012 を使用しています 。
Microsoft SQL Server 2012 管理者のために訓 練演習をホストしています。 現在 Fuzzy Lookup 変
化について議論しています。
下記のどれが Fuzzy Lookup 類似性しきい値セ ッテゖングに関して真実ですか。 ( 当てはま る
ものをすべて選んでください。)
A. しきい値を大きくすると照合速度を向上させることができる。
B. しきい値を大きく するとマッチングの速度を低下させることができる。
C. 値が 1 までより近いほど、ソース値への検索値の類似性は、より近くにマッチとしての
資格を得なければならない。
D. 値が 1 までより近 いほど、ソース値への検索値の類似は、より遠くマッチとしての資格
を得なければならない。
Answer: AC

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NO.5 テス ト環境に新 しい SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS ) プロ ジェクトを展開していま
す。プ ロジ ェク トの パ ッケー ジは カス タム? タスク? コンポ ーネ ン トを使 用し ます 。 カスタ
ム? オ ブジ ェクト が正 しくテス ト環 境に展 開 されるこ とを 確認す る 必要があ りま す。何 を 行
わなければなりませんか。
A. dtexec /rep /conn コ マンドを使用してパッケージを実行する。
B. 再利用可能なカス タム? ロギング? コンポ ーネントを作成する。
C. OnError ゗ベント? ハンドラを作成する。
D. gacutil コマンドを使用する。
E. dtutil を使用して Integration Services のカタ ログにパッケージを展開し、 構成を保存するた
めに SQL Server を使用 する。
F. dtexec /dumperror /conn コマンドを使用し てパッケージを実行する。
G. Integration Services 配置ウゖザードを使用する。
H. msi フゔ゗ルを使用してパッケージを展開する。
I. パッケージ? データ? フロー中のコンポーネントの出力にデータタップを追加する。
J. dtexecui.exe ユーテゖリテゖと SQL ログプロバ゗ダを使用してパッケージを実行する。
K. dtutil /copy コマンド を使用する。
Answer: D

Microsoft   070-463J   070-463J examen   070-463J
Explanation:
According to this reference, this answer looks correct.
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms403356.aspx

NO.6 あなたは 2 つの フゔクト? テーブルでデータ· ウェゕハウスを設計しています。最初の
テー ブルは 1 か月当たりの販売を含んでおり、 2 番目のテーブルは 1 日当たりの注文を含ん
でいます。 参照 整合 性は宣言的 に実施 され なければな りませ ん。 単一の時間 デゖメ ンシ ョ
ンを両方 のフ ゔクト? テーブル に取 り付け る ことがで きる ソリュ ー ションを 設計 する必 要 が
あります。何を行わなければなりませんか。
A. 時間マッピング? テーブルを作成する。
B. 同じするようにフ ゔクト? テーブルの両方で粒度のレベルを変更する。
C. フゔクト? テーブル をマージする。
D. 販売テーブルに関 するビューを作成する。
Answer: A

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NO.7 あなたは Business Intelligence プロジ ェクトのデータ? スチュワードです。CSV フゔ゗
ルへの SQL Server テ ーブルと出力発見に格納される重複の行を識別する必要があります 。
Data Quality Services (DQS )知識ベースはこのプロジェクトをサポートするために作成され
ました。 開発作業で最少の量で CSV フゔ゗ルを作成する必要があります。 何を行わなければ
なりませんか。
A. Integration Services パッケージを作成し、データ· プロフゔ゗リング変換を使用する。
B. Knowledgebase クラ スに基づいたカスタム.NETT ゕプリケーションを作成する。
C. Knowledgebase クラ スに基づいた CLR のス トゕド? プロシジャーを作成する。
D. Master Data Services (MDS) のビジネスルール を作成する。
E. データ品質プロジェクトを作成する。
Answer: E

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NO.8 あなたは ABC.com でデータベース管理者として働いています。ABC.com のネットワ ー
クは ABC.com という単 一のドメ゗ンで構成されています。 ABC.com は自分の環境で Microsoft
SQL Server 2012 を使用 しています。
あなたは SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS )パッケージを作成するプロセスにあります。
Expression タスクを利 用することにしました 。
以下のどれが Expression Task に関して真実ですか。
A. それは実行時に変数の値を設定する式を作成し、評価する。
B. SQL Server Integration ServicesSQL Server の統 合サービスに提供される変換とビルト゗ン? タ
スクで利用できない機能を実行するためのコードを提供する。
C. それは SQL Server Integration Services パッケ ージ? ワークフローの一部としてゕプリケーシ
ョンまたはバッチ? フゔ゗ルを実行する。
D. それはあなたがパッケージ実行の間に SQL ステートメントを実行することを可能にす
る。
Answer: A

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NO.9 ABC.com のデータベース管理者として働きます。ABC.com ネ ットワークは ABC.com と
い う 単 一 の ド メ ゗ ン で 構 成 さ れ て い ま す 。 ABC.com は 自 分 の 環 境 で Microsoft SQL Server
2012 を使用していま す。 あなたは SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) パッケージを作成す
るプロセスにあります。パッケージは GenerateAndPersistNewIndex Fuzzy Lookup 変換オプ シ
ョンを利用するように構成されます。
このオプションの 目的は以下のどれですか。
A. それは現在の゗ンデックスが再使用されることを許す。
B. それは新しい゗ン デックスを保存せずに作成されることを許す。
C. それは維持するこ となく新しい゗ンデックスが作成されて、保存されるのを許す。
D. それは新しい゗ン デックスが作成されて、保存されて、維持されるのを許す。
Answer: C

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NO.10 データ? ウェゕ ハウスに SQL Azure デ ータベースでホストされるデータをロードする
SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS ) パッケージを実装しています。 ソース? システムは冗長
であるか矛盾しているデータを含みます。 パッケージには無効なデータが検出されると、 無
効なデータを含む行は省略されなければなりません。 しかし、 それ はさらなる分析のために
テキストフゔ゗ルに書き込まなければなりません。 あなたは、 最小 限に開発努力の量を維持
しながら、 これらの無効な行を記録するために最高の技術を確立する必要があります。 何を
行わなければなりませんか。
A. SSIS プロジェクトに OnError ゗ベントハンドラを追加する。
B. サーバー上のパッ ケージを展開する msi フゔ゗ルを使用する。
C. コマンド? プロンプ トを開き、gacutil コマンドを実行する。
D. コマンド? プロンプトを開き、dtutil/copy コマンドを実行する。
E. コマンド? プロンプトを開き、dtexec /rep /conn コマンドを実行 する。
F. コマンド? プロンプトを開き、dtexec/dumperror/conn コマンドを 実行する。
G. dtexecui.exe ユーテゖリテゖと SQL ログプロバ゗ダを使用し てパッケージを実行する。
H. 再利用可能なカス タムロギング· コンポーネントを作成し、SSIS プロジェクトでそれを使
用する。
I. プロジェクト配備モ デルを使用するために SSIS ソリューションを構成する。
J. データ? タッ プを使 用する ために パッケ ー ジ? デ ータ? フ ロー 中の コンポ ーネン トの出 力 を
構成する。
K. SSIS カタログにパッケージを展開し、SQL サーバーで配置を格納するために dtutil コマ ン
ドを実行する。
Answer: J

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NO.11 SQL Server の Data Quality Services (DQS )を゗ンストールしています。特定のユーザー
に Data Quality Server へのゕクセス権を与える必要があります。 どの SQL サーバー? ゕプ リケ
ーションを使用しなければなりませんか。
A. SQL Server Configuration Manager
B. SQL Server Data Tools
C. SQL Server Management Studio
D. Data Quality Client
Answer: C

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NO.12 あなたは ABC.com のデータベース管理者として働いてい ます。 ABC.com のネットワ ー
クは ABC.com と い う シ ン グ ル? ド メ ゗ ン で 構 成 さ れ て い ま す 。ABC.com は 自 分 の 環 境 で
Microsoft SQL Server 2012 を使用しています 。
あなたは SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS )パッケージを作成するプロセスにあります。
パ ッ ケ ージ は SQL Azure デー タ ベー スの テー ブ ル にフ ゔ゗ ル のゕッ プ ロ ード を設 定 されま
す。
コードがその確認が完了するとき、 ゗ベントを起こすために実行可能フゔ゗ルを利用する゗
ベント? ハンドラを含む ことを確認する必要があります。
下記のどれが使用すべき゗ベント? ハンドラですか。
A. OnPostExecute ゗ベ ント? ハンドラ
B. OnTaskFailed ゗ベント? ハンドラ
C. OnPreExecute ゗ベン ト? ハンドラ
D. OnPostValidate ゗ベ ント? ハンドラ
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JN0-130

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))

Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-303

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.m(jncis-m))

Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-140

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-AC) 140 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-562

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-321

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (DX, Associate(JNCIA-DX))

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three examples of a provider-provisioned VPN supported by JUNOS software? (Choose
three.)
A. L2F
B. PPTP
C. Circuit cross-connect
D. Draft-Martini-based VPNs
E. Draft-Kompella-based VPNs
Answer: CDE

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NO.2 Which LSA is the Type 10?
A. Router LSA
B. Opaque LSA
C. AS attributes LSA
D. ASBR summary LSA
E. Network summary LSA
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two mechanisms control route distribution between PE routers in a 2547bis VPN? (Choose
two.)
A. Site ID
B. Policies
C. Circuit ID
D. Extended communities
Answer: BD

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NO.4 What are two commands that can be used to configure MBGP for multicast? (choose two)
A. Under the BGP group, configure family inet any
B. Use the set protocol MBGP command to enable MBGP
C. Under the BGP group, configure family inet multicast
D. Use the set rib-group command to copy the multicast routes into inet.1
Answer: AC

certification Juniper   certification JN0-303   JN0-303   JN0-303 examen

NO.5 An OSPF non-backbone area allows external routes to be flooded within the area. These external
routes are
propagated into other areas. However, external routes from other areas are not allowed to enter this area.
Which type of
OSPF area does this describe?
A. stub area
B. transit area
C. border area
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-303   certification JN0-303   JN0-303   JN0-303

NO.6 In JUNOS software, which type of VPN supports IPX and Appletalk?
A. Martini based VPN's
B. 2547bis based VPN's
C. Sham link based VPN's
D. Virtual Router based VPN's
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-303 examen   JN0-303 examen   JN0-303

NO.7 Which represents a correct PE-PE BGP configuration for an L3 VPN?
A. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
B. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
any;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1; }
C. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
unicast;
}
family inet-vpn {
unicast;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
D. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
13-vpn;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
Answer: C

Juniper examen   JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.8 In JUNOS software, which three are valid encapsulation types for CCC? (Choose three.)
A. hdlc-ccc
B. atm-cell-ccc
C. cisco-hdlc-ccc
D. ethernet-vlan-ccc
E. ethernet-snap-ccc
Answer: BCD

Juniper   JN0-303 examen   certification JN0-303   JN0-303 examen   certification JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.9 In JUNOS software, what is required to redistribute RIP routes into OSPF?
A. Apply an export policy in RIP.
B. Apply an import policy in RIP.
C. Apply an export policy in OSPF.
D. Apply an import policy in OSPF.
Answer: C

Juniper examen   certification JN0-303   certification JN0-303   JN0-303 examen

NO.10 Which two multicast groups support Auto-RP mapping and discovery? (Choose two.)
A. 224.0.0.39
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.40
D. 224.0.1.40
Answer: BD

certification Juniper   JN0-303   JN0-303

NO.11 Which three RP election mechanisms are available in a PIM-SM domain? (Choose three.)
A. Static
B. Auto-RP
C. Dynamic-RP
D. Bootstrap router
Answer: ABD

Juniper   JN0-303   JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.12 What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?
A. IGP
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. MPLS
Answer: C

certification Juniper   JN0-303   JN0-303   JN0-303   JN0-303 examen

NO.13 What is the administrative scoping address range associated with global scope?
A. 224.0.0.0/24
B. 239.128.0.0/10
C. 239.192.0.0/14
D. 224.0.1.0?38.255.255.255
Answer: D

Juniper   certification JN0-303   JN0-303   certification JN0-303   certification JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.14 Which JUNOS software operational-mode command displays the status of a Draft-Martini VPN?
A. show ldp neighbor
B. show martini connections
C. show l2circuit connections
D. show l2vpn connections
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-303   certification JN0-303   JN0-303

NO.15 PE1 has connections to VPN sites that are served by three remote PE routers. How many LSP's must
be established to support 2547bis?
A. an LSP for each local CE device
B. an LSP for each remote PE device
C. an LSP for each remote CE device
D. an LSP for each CE facing interface
Answer: B

certification Juniper   JN0-303   JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.16 Which two steps are required for a Kompella Layer 2 VPN? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a site ID for each CE
B. Configure a VPN label for each VPN
C. Configure a MP-BGP session to each PE
D. Configure an Extended LDP Session to each PE
Answer: AC

Juniper   JN0-303   certification JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.17 When comparing CPE and provider-provisioned VPNs (PPVPN), which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. CPE VPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, PPVPN does not.
B. PPVPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, CPE VPN's does not.
C. CPE VPN's scale better than PPVPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
D. PPVPN's scale better than CPE VPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
Answer: AD

Juniper examen   JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.18 In what PIM topology would you use MSDP within a single domain?
A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast RP
C. Bootstrap router
D. PIM sparse mode
Answer: B

Juniper examen   JN0-303   certification JN0-303   certification JN0-303

NO.19 What prevents routing loops when MSDP is configured across multiple domains?
A. PIM-SM
B. Scoping
C. Auto-RP
D. MBGP
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-303   JN0-303   JN0-303

NO.20 Which multicast mode does Auto-RP require?
A. Link-mode
B. Dense mode
C. Sparse mode D. Sparse-dense mode
Answer: D

Juniper   certification JN0-303   JN0-303 examen   JN0-303 examen   JN0-303

ISM meilleur examen CPSM1 630-007 630-008 630-006 630-005, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CPSM1

Nom d'Examen: ISM (Foundation of Supply Management)

Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 630-007

Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies)

Questions et réponses: 285 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 630-008

Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 4: Management)

Questions et réponses: 360 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 630-006

Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 2: Supply Environment)

Questions et réponses: 285 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 630-005

Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 1: Purchasing Process)

Questions et réponses: 209 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of promoting from within the
purchasing organization?
A. Keeping morale high.
B. Reducing training costs.
C. Stimulating individual performance.
D. Bringing experience in complementary areas.
Answer: D

ISM   certification 630-008   630-008

NO.2 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate measure of performance for a
purchasing department?
A. Average time to place requisitions.
B. Total dollars contributed to profits.
C. Total dollars purchased per supplier.
D. Total product cost reduction compared to budget.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.3 Which of the following theories suggests that managers can attain the greatest level
of employee motivation by determining the most desirable outcomes?
A. Theory X.
B. Theory Z.
C. Expectancy theory.
D. Scientific management.
E. Motivation-Hygiene theory.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is generally NOT strategic in nature?
A. New advertising schedule implementation.
B. New dividend policy direction.
C. New product development.
D. New sources of financing.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-008   certification 630-008   630-008

NO.5 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. You are instructed to reduce
Certkiller .cm's MRO supplier base from 50 to 1. Which of the following would be
your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Buying at the lowest total cost, consistent with quality and service.
B. Achieving a high degree of cooperation with internal customers.
C. Developing reliable alternatives of supply.
D. Optimizing inventory turnover.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.6 Certkiller .com has more than 10,000 employees located on two regional branches
and on several smaller branches. Annual purchases of goods and services for
Certkiller .com exceed $150 million. In which of the following ways would
Certkiller .com LEAST likely benefit from a highly centralized purchasing function?
A. Improvements due to decreased duplication of effort.
B. Adherence to organization-wide standards and objectives.
C. Savings from standardization and improved economies of scale.
D. Satisfaction of product and source preferences for internal customers.
Answer: D

ISM   630-008   certification 630-008   630-008

NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a good indicator of purchasing department
performance?
A. Quality rejection rates for major items.
B. Number of purchase orders issued.
C. Percentage of on-time deliveries.
D. Number of stockout situations.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. An employee that has been at
Certkiller .com for 20-years has become accustomed to coming to work 30-45
minutes late. Initially, this was due to child-rearing responsibilities, but now is a
simply habit. The supervisor has asked the employee several times if there was a
problem and the answer has always been "no." The problem is beginning to have a
negative impact on the morale of the rest of the department. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Dismiss the employee.
B. Have the employee attend counseling sessions.
C. Ask the human resources department to intervene and find a solution to the problem.
D. Set goals with the employee to improve on arrival time, and include a written report in
the employee's file.
Answer: D

ISM   certification 630-008   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008   630-008 examen

NO.9 Which of the following is LEAST important when evaluating buyer performance?
A. Quality of work.
B. Quantity of work.
C. Personal appearance.
D. Communication skills.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-008   certification 630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.10 Which of the following methods should a purchasing manager use when evaluating
individual employee performance?
A. Performance standards set by the U.S. Department of Labor.
B. The requirements of the job, including position descriptions.
C. Management By Objectives, whether or not the employee helped set the objectives.
D. Uniform company-wide standards of performance developed by the human resources
department.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-008 examen   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.11 Which of the following would NOT be included in a typical audit of the purchasing
department in a manufacturing operation?
A. Inspection.
B. Organization policy.
C. Purchasing operations.
D. Inventory management.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-008 examen   630-008   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.12 Under which of the following circumstances is negative feedback appropriate?
A. Soon after the occurrence of the faulty behavior.
B. In the presence of other managerial personnel.
C. In the presence of other team members.
D. It is never appropriate.
Answer: A

ISM examen   certification 630-008   certification 630-008   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.13 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. One of your buyers tends to
ignore outstanding purchase orders. This has resulted in numerous complaints from
the shop floor asking the buyer to determine order status. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Inform the buyer to set up a system for follow-up.
B. Computerize the purchasing department operations.
C. Allow shop floor personnel to make their own purchases.
D. Inform the buyer that she will be dismissed if she does not improve her performance.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-008   630-008

NO.14 What is the training method that facilitates the development of organization-wide
skills and requires good interpersonal skills called?
A. Functional rotation.
B. On-the-job training.
C. The "buddy" system.
D. Continuing education.
Answer: A

ISM   630-008 examen   630-008   certification 630-008   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.15 In which of the following defines a situation where objectives are more general at
the top of an organization and become more specific as one moves down the
organization?
A. Hierarchy of objectives.
B. Management By Objectives (MBO).
C. Decision support system.
D. Goal setting.
Answer: A

ISM   630-008 examen   certification 630-008

NO.16 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. A female employee has been
working for Certkiller .com for about 12 years and has 3 years to go until her
scheduled retirement. Recently, she was laid off from her position, and her duties
were absorbed by younger workers in the department. Under which of the following
is she MOST likely to have a claim against the company?
A. Equal Employment Opportunity Act.
B. National Labor Relations Act.
C. Age Discrimination Act.
D. Executive Order 11246.
Answer: C

ISM   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.17 Which of the following documents is MOST important in transportation?
A. Bill of materials.
B. Bill of lading.
C. Bill of sale.
D. Manifest.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-008   630-008   certification 630-008   certification 630-008

NO.18 Which of the following does profit planning begin?
A. Business plans.
B. Long-range strategic plans.
C. Short-range strategic plans.
D. Strategic and operational plans.
Answer: D

ISM   630-008   630-008   certification 630-008   630-008

NO.19 Which of the following can BEST enhance a measurement and control system for
evaluating buyer performance?
A. Including the buyer in the design of the system.
B. Including human resources in the design of the system.
C. Making a composite measurement of efficiency and effectiveness.
D. Being sufficiently broad in scope to allow the measurement of all contingencies.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-008   630-008 examen   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.20 Which of the following statements regarding the orientation of a buyer trainee are
FALSE?
A. The trainee should be informed of personal growth opportunities.
B. Orientation and training should be conducted separately during the trainee's initial
months on the job.
C. The trainee should be informed that his/her performance will be evaluated during
orientation and later on.
D. The trainee should be advised of purchasing's major staff and line activities.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-008   certification 630-008

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur ISC CAP SSCP CISSP

L'importance de la position de Certificat ISC CAP SSCP CISSP dans l'industrie IT est bien claire pour tout le monde, mais c'est pas facile à obtenir ce Certificat. Il y a beaucoup de Q&As qui manquent une haute précision des réponses. Cependant, Pass4Test peut offrir des matériaux pratiques pour toutes les personnes à participer l'examen de Certification, et il peut aussi offrir à tout moment toutes les informations que vous auriez besoin à réussir l'examen ISC CAP SSCP CISSP par votre première fois.


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Code d'Examen: CAP

Nom d'Examen: ISC (CAP – Certified Authorization Professional)

Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SSCP

Nom d'Examen: ISC (System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) )

Questions et réponses: 254 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CISSP

Nom d'Examen: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )

Questions et réponses: 2137 Q&As

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CISSP Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CISSP.html


NO.1 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

ISC   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP examen   CISSP

NO.3 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

certification ISC   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP

NO.4 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

ISC examen   CISSP   CISSP

NO.5 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

ISC   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP

NO.6 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

ISC   CISSP   CISSP examen   CISSP examen   CISSP

NO.7 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

ISC   CISSP   CISSP   certification CISSP   certification CISSP

NO.8 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

ISC   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP examen

NO.9 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

ISC   CISSP   CISSP examen

NO.10 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

certification ISC   CISSP   CISSP

NO.11 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

ISC   CISSP   certification CISSP   CISSP   CISSP

NO.12 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

ISC   CISSP   certification CISSP   CISSP

NO.13 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

ISC examen   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP examen   CISSP examen

NO.14 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

ISC   CISSP examen   CISSP   CISSP

NO.15 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

ISC examen   CISSP examen   CISSP examen

NO.16 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

ISC   CISSP   CISSP

NO.17 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

ISC examen   CISSP examen   certification CISSP   CISSP

NO.18 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

ISC   CISSP examen   CISSP   CISSP

NO.19 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

ISC examen   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP   CISSP

NO.20 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

ISC   certification CISSP   CISSP examen   CISSP

NO.21 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.23 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.24 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.26 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.29 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.30 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Workplace Content Management)

Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-994

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V6.0,System Administration)

Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-415

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere IIS DataStage Enterprise Edition v7.5)

Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

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NO.1 An XML file is being processed by the XML Input stage. How can repetition elements be
identified on the stage?
A.Set the "Key" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
B.Check the "Repetition Element Required" box on the output link tab.
C.Set the "Nullable" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
D.No special settings are required. XML Input stage automatically detects the repetition element from the
XPath expression.
Correct:A

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NO.2 In which two scenarios should a sparse lookup be used in place of a normal lookup to retrieve
data from an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A.When the Oracle database is on the same system as the DataStage server.
B.When the number of input rows is significantly larger than the number of rows in the lookup table.
C.When the number of input rows is significantly smaller than the number of rows in the lookup table.
D.A database function that returns the current value of an Oracle object is required as part of the result set.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 How does a Join stage process an Inner join?
A.It transfers records from the input data sets whose key columns contain equal values to the output data
set.
B.It transfers all values from the left data set but transfers values from the right data set and intermediate
data sets only when key columns match.
C.It transfers all values from the right data set and transfers values from the left data set and intermediate
data sets only where key columns match.
D.It transfers records in which the contents of the key columns are equal from the left and right input data
sets to the output data set. It also transfers records whose key columns contain unequal values from both
input data sets to the output data set.
Correct:A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the uv command in a UNIX DataStage server?
A.Start and stop the DataStage engine.
B.Report DataStage client connections.
C.Cleanup resources from a failed DataStage job.
D.Provide read access to a DataStage EE configuration file.
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Aggregator Sort and Hash methods when the
APT_NO_SORT_INSERTION environment variable is set to TRUE?
A.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have the partition sorted by
the group key.
B.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have been partition sorted by
the group key.
C.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
performing the aggregation.
D.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
building a hash table in memory.
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which two tasks will create DataStage projects? (Choose two.)
A.Install the DataStage engine.
B.Copy a project in DataStage Administrator.
C.Add new projects from DataStage Administrator.
D.Export and import a DataStage project from DataStage Manager.
Correct:A C

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NO.7 Which two can be implemented in a Job Sequence using job parameters? (Choose two.)
A.All options of the Start Loop Activity stage.
B.Name of a job to be executed by a Job Activity stage.
C.A command to be executed by a Routine Activity stage.
D.The body of the email notification activity using the user interface.
Correct:A C

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NO.8 A customer is interested in selecting the right RDBMS environment to run DataStage
Enterprise Edition to solve a multi-file and relational database data merge. The customer realizes
the value of running in parallel and is interested in knowing which RDBMS stage will match the
internal data partitioning of a given RDBMS. Which RDBMS stage will satisfy the customer's
request?
A.ODBC Enterprise
B.Oracle Enterprise
C.Sybase Enterprise
D.DB2/UDB Enterprise
Correct:D

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NO.9 Which statement about job parameter usage is true?
A.You can use environment variables to set parameter values linked to the Job Sequence.
B.You can change the parameter values in an initialization file linked to a Job Sequence .ini file.
C.Changes to the job parameters in the Designer do not require a recompile to be applied to the job.
D.You can change job parameters while a job is running and the changes will immediately be applied
mid-job.
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which command can be used to execute DataStage jobs from a UNIX shell script?
A.osh
B.dsjob
C.DSRunJob
D.DSExecute
Correct:B

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NO.11 Which two statements about performance tuning a DataStage EE environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A.Overall job design has a minimal impact in actual real-world performance.
B.Only adjust buffer tuning parameters after examining other performance factors.
C.A single, optimized configuration file will yield best performance for all jobs and be easier to administer.
D.Performance tuning is an iterative process - adjust one item at a time and examine the results in
isolation.
Correct:B D

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NO.12 Which three are valid ways within a Job Sequence to pass parameters to Activity stages?
(Choose three.)
A.Routine Activity stage
B.Sequencer Activity stage
C.UserVariables Activity stage
D.ExecCommand Activity stage
E.Nested Condition Activity stage
Correct:A C D

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NO.13 Which two statements are true of the column data types used in Orchestrate schemas? (Choose
two.)
A.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are varchar and integer.
B.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are int32 and string [max=30].
C.Orchestrate schema column data types are the same as those used in DataStage stages.
D.OSH import operators are needed to convert data read from sequential files into schema types.
Correct:B D

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NO.14 Click the Task button. You have been asked to improve the performance of a job. A consultant
has convinced your manager that sorts and partitions are major contributors to the performance
issues being experienced since they are specified as "auto". Both the aggregation and join are
done on Zip (postal) code. Place the appropriate sort/aggregation specifications on the links.
Correct:
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

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NO.15 A job has two input sources that need to be combined. Each input source exceeds available
physical memory. The files are in the same format and must be combined using a key value. It is
guaranteed that there will be at least one match. Given the above scenario, which stage would
consume the least amount of physical memory?
A.Merge
B.Funnel
C.Lookup
D.Transformer
Correct:A

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NO.16 The last two steps of a job are an Aggregator stage using the Hash method and a Sequential File
stage with a Collector type of Auto that creates a comma delimited output file for use by a
common spreadsheet program. The job runs a long time because data volumes have increased.
Which two changes would improve performance? (Choose two.)
A.Change the Sequential stage to use a Sort Merge collector on the aggregation keys.
B.Change the Sequential stage to a Data Set stage to allow the write to occur in parallel.
C.Change the Aggregator stage to use the sort method. Hash and sort on the aggregation keys.
D.Change the Aggregator stage to a Transformer stage and use stage variables to accumulate the
aggregations.
Correct:A C

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NO.17 Which statement describes a process for capturing a COBOL copybook from a z/OS system?
A.Select the COBOL copybook using the Browse button and capture the COBOL copybook with Manager.
B.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in binary and capture the metadata through
Manager.
C.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in text mode and capture the copybook with
Manager.
D.FTP the COBOL copybook to the server platform in text mode and capture the metadata through
Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.18 Establishing a consistent naming standard for link names is useful in which two ways?
(Choose two.)
A.using less memory at job runtime
B.specifying link order without having to specify stage properties to generate correct results
C.improving developer productivity and quality by distinguishing link names within stage editors
D.easing use of captured job statistics (eg. row counts in an XML file) by processes or users outside of
DataStage
Correct:C D

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NO.19 Which three are valid trigger expressions in a stage in a Job Sequence? (Choose three.)
A.Unconditional
B.Equality(Conditional)
C.Custom(Conditional)
D.Difference(Conditional)
E.ReturnValue(Conditional)
Correct:A C E

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NO.20 Job run details for a specific invocation of a multi-instance job can be viewed by which two
clients? (Choose two.)
A.dsjob
B.dsjobinfo
C.DataStage Director
D.DataStage Manager
Correct:A C

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Code d'Examen: LOT-980

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Sys Admin Operating Fundamentals)

Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

Code d'Examen: LOT-959

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebShere Portal 6.1 Application Development )

Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: LOT-956

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update.)

Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

Code d'Examen: LOT-849

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users )

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Lotus Notes Traveler server maintains a database with information pertaining to the cluster replicas of
the mail files which are being synchronized with a Lotus Notes Traveler client. The file name of this
database is which of the following?
A.travcldir.nsf
B.mduserdir.nsf
C.ntsclcache.nsf
D.lntravcache.ndk
Answer:C

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NO.2 Miranda wishes to deploy LDAP access to the Domino directory. However, she wishes to restrict the
fields available to anonymous users. In what document are the fields selected that will be available to
anonymous access?
A.LDAP Site document
B.Internet Site document
C.LDAP configuration document
D.Server configuration document
Answer:D

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NO.3 You built a pre-existing Domino Domain Monitoring environment with customizations to Lotus provided
Domino Domain Monitoring documents. Which of the following types of entries are migrated to modular
documents in Domino 8.5?
A.Stock
B.Probe
C.Event
D.Handler
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following Domino database elements are utilized to create documents and display Web
pages to a browser?
A.Forms
B.Views
C.Agents
D.Data notes
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which of the following are required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?
A.Cleanup Script
B.Fault Recovery
C.maximum Fault Limits
D.Server Shutdown Timeout
Answer:B

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NO.6 You have made the following entry in the server's notes.ini file Allow_Access_lan7=* ($Groups) Which
of the following will this entry provide?
A.Every group in the Domino Directory will be allowed access over lan7
B.Everyone in the Domino Directory that cannot be found in a group can access the server over lan7
C.Every group in the Domino Directory will be denied access to all other ports on the Domino server
D.No one in the Domino Directory will be able to access lan7 unless you first access another port and
authenticate as part of a group
Answer:A

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NO.7 The purpose of the RnRMgr task is which of the following?
A.Create an individual document for each mail user in the new RnRBusytime database with busytime
marked
B.Watch for reservation requests in an R R database and to process them in the order in which they arrive
or were created
C.Scan all the mail users, rooms and resources in the domain and populate the busytime database with
the freetime for each one
D.Obtain a list of all rooms and resources across the local and foreign domains and consolidate the
freetime into a single busytime database on a daily basis
Answer:B

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NO.8 Streaming cluster replication uses which of the following to move unread marks and folder additions to
clustered servers?
A.In-memory information
B.Scheduled replication
C.A temporary index directory
D.A database titled clurep.nsf
Answer:A

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NO.9 While installing the first Domino server, Alan is presented with a list of Internet services. Which of the
following are selections for Alan under Internet services?
A.Database Replicator, Ports and Web Interfaces
B.Directory engines, Schedule Management and Billing
C.Web browsers, Internet Mail clients and Directory services
D.Protocols, Domino Enterprise Connection Services and Web Statistics
Answer:C

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NO.10 David modified the names of the ID vault administrators for the organization. When the names were
modified, they were adjusted in the vault database ACL and also in which of the following locations?
A.The Domino server log.nsf
B.The vault certificate document in the Domino Directory
C.The idvault.log file for the assigned ID vault database
D.The vault document in the Security - ID Vaults view of the Domino Directory
Answer:D

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NO.11 Brittany opened her composite application in Designer and no provisioning occurred. Which of the
following files are read for provisioning information when a composite application is open in the Lotus
Notes client?
A.ca.xml
B.composite.xml
C.provisioning.properties
D.applications.properties
Answer:A

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NO.12 In the Domino Administrator client how do you view a visual representation of the mail system
structure?
A.Topologies tab > Mail and Messaging tab > Map section > Mail view
B.Server tab > Mail tab > Routing Map section > Server Connections view
C.Statistics tab > Messaging tab > Mail Routing section > Topology view
D.Messaging tab > Mail tab > Mail Routing Topology section > By Connections view
Answer:D

IBM   LOT-980 examen   LOT-980

NO.13 Where can you view server statistics in the Domino Administrator client?
A.Server tab > Statistics tab
B.Statistics tab > Server tab
C.Domino tab > Server Statistics tab
D.Server Statistics tab > Domino tab
Answer:A

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NO.14 The Certification log records information related to which of the following?
A.Certification, recertification and name changes
B.DOLS certificates, SSL key expirations and Internet Sites
C.Recertification, self-signed certificates and SSL key expirations
D.Group membership, self-signed certificates and S/MIME certificates
Answer:A

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NO.15 A Configuration Directory utilizes a primary Domino Directory for which of the following?
A.To negotiate replication settings and obtain the administrative server requests
B.To obtain information on Person, Group, Mail-In Database, and Resource documents
C.To obtain information on connection, program, schedule and certificate documents
D.To allow remote users to passthru to internal Domino servers as defined in the Configuration Directory
Answer:B

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NO.16 Domino uses which of the following to determine the best, least-cost path to deliver mail?
A.The routing table
B.The MAPS server task
C.The SMTP updater task
D.The certification view in the Domino directory
Answer:A

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NO.17 A Foreign domain document defines the path between a Domino domain and which of the following?
A.Adjacent domains
B.Internet domains
C.External applications
D.Organizational domains
Answer:C

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NO.18 Each port on a Domino server may be in how many Notes Named Networks?
A.One
B.Two
C.Four
D.Seven
Answer:A

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NO.19 Rob runs the task UPDALL with the -R argument on his server. What will this accomplish?
A.It rebuilds indices in all views in all databases on the server.
B.It discards damaged indices in all views in all databases on the server.
C.It deletes all indices so that they can be recreated when users access them.
D.It removes unused space from indices in all views in all databases on the server.
Answer:A

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NO.20 Marie, a Domino user, is sending an email to a person not found in the Domino Directory. In what
message format will the router send the message?
A.The format will always be in MIME
B.The format will always be in SMTP
C.The format will always be in Notes Rich Text
D.The format will be decided by the type of address being sent to
Answer:D

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NO.21 When a recipient's mail file is not on the local server, but is in the Domino domain, Domino calculates
how to route the message to the recipient's server and whether to use SMTP or Notes routing (NRPC).
What is the next determination of how the message is routed?
A.If the user's mailfile is running the same Domino version as the sender determines how the message is
routed
B.The configuration of the local server and the message format determine how Domino moves the
message to the server
C.If the local server can send SMTP within the local Internet domain and the home mail server can
receive SMTP, the Router uses SMTP to send the message
D.The configuration of the SMTP task to allow relays on the destination server is read from the Domino
Directory. If relays are allowed the message is sent NRPC
Answer:B

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NO.22 POP3 and IMAP use which of the following for user authentication?
A.A Notes id file
B.Single sign-on (SSO)
C.Public and private keys
D.Username and Internet password
Answer:D

IBM   LOT-980   LOT-980

NO.23 You are building Domino Domain Monitoring probes in Domino 8.5 and wish to create a standard
Possible Solution for all of them. Which of the following document types allow this capability?
A.Modular
B.Embedded
C.Component
D.Corrective
Answer:A

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NO.24 Oscar has noticed that when the Domino server launches, the Router states that it is in the domain
acme.com for receiving Internet email. Oscar has yet to create a Global Domain document for his
environment. Where is the server obtaining the domain name information?
A.From the server's host name
B.From the Ports tab of the server document
C.From the FQDN field on the server document
D.From a notes.ini variable SMTPMailDomain=acme.com
Answer:A

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NO.25 SMTP stands for which of the following?
A.Simple Mail Transport Protocol
B.Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
C.Standard Mail Transfer Protocol
D.Standard MailTransport Protocol
Answer:B

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NO.26 Which server console command adds or changes a setting in the NOTES.INI file?
A.Load update
B.Enter change
C.Set Configuration
D.Update notes variable
Answer:C

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NO.27 Notes Shared login is only available to which of the following?
A.Notes ID's protected by Smartcards
B.Notes IDs used in a Citrix environment
C.Notes IDs for users who have Windows mandatory profiles
D.Notes IDs on the computer where shared login was enabled
Answer:D

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NO.28 During the Domino server installation, Mark is presented with an option asking what type of Domino
server he wishes to install. Which of the following installs a Domino server that provides both messaging
and application services, with support for Domino clusters?
A.Domino Utility Server
B.Domino Messaging Server
C.Domino Clustered Server
D.Domino Enterprise Server
Answer:D

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NO.29 Which type of server installation provides standard Domino application services and custom Domino
databases for Notes and Web clients, as well as support for clusters?
A.Domino Utility Server
B.Domino Database Server
C.Domino Messaging Server
D.Domino Enterprise Server
Answer:A

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NO.30 Jerrod, a new Domino administrator, has been attempting to take corrective actions on some Domino
Domain Monitoring events. However, the actions are not available. Which of the following rights are
required?
A.Manager rights to DDM.nsf
B.Execute CA role in DDM.nsf
C.Editor access to Admin4.nsf
D.Corective role in Events4.nsf
Answer:B

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