IBM C4040-227 M6040-520, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C4040-227
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Associate AIX 7 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M6040-520
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Retail Store Solutions Sales Professional mastery test)
Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

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NO.1 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How will the following command change the datalv logical volume?
chlv -e m datalv
A. The logical volume will be encrypted with the key in a file named "m".
B. The logical volume will be rebalanced across the maximum physical volumes immediately.
C. The logical volume will have new logical partitions spread across as few disks as possible.
D. The logical volume will be rebalanced across the minimum number of physical volumes
immediately
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator created a log logical volume named dbfs2loglv. Given the following output,
why did the system create and use a new log logical volume rather than the log logical volume that
the administrator specified?
A. The filesystem was built with a mirrored logical volume and 2 log logical volumes are needed.
B. The administrator created the db2fsloglv log but neglected to format it with the logform
command.
C. The db2fsloglv log was created as a JFS log and a JFS2 log was needed.
D. There was already another filesystem using the db2fsloglv when the filesystem was created
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator is removing a failed disk from a mirrored rootvg volume group. A message
directed the administrator to run the chpv -c command.
The administrator ran this command against the last available disk in rootvg.
What is the result of performing this action?
A. The failed drive is removed from the bootlist.
B. The boot record was removed from the system.
C. The ipldevice was re-linked to the available disk device name.
D. The boot record was updated with the available disk information.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A new security policy dictates that unnecessary default user accounts be removed. Which
default user IDs are most eligible for removal?
A. nobody and adm
B. root, sys and system
C. daemon, Ipd, adm and guest
D. nuucp. Ipd, and guest
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which action will temporarily disable remote login access using telnet and ssh for all non-root
accounts?
A. Update /etc/security/passwd and recycle the inetd subsystem.
B. Stop the sshd subsystem.
C. Create a/etc/nologin file.
D. Set the PermitLogins parameter in /etc/ssh/sshd_config and recycle the sshd daemon.
E. Touch the /etc/sshd/nologin file and recycle the sshd daemon.
Answer: C

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NO.7 AIX has been installed on an LPAR with 32 GB of memory. What should be checked first, before
increasing the paging space beyond the default 512MB?
A. The maximum memory attribute in the LPAR profile.
B. Quantity and size of hosted filesystems.
C. Disk device distribution and utilization.
D. Paging requirements of applications that will be hosted.
Answer: D

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NO.8 With regard to GLVM mirroring, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Mirrored locations are limited to being 254 miles apart
B. Data mirroring is performed over standard TCP/IP networks
C. GLVM requires any hosted database applications to be mirror-tolerant.
D. Production and backup sites must use the exact same model of IBM Power System server
Answer: A

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IBM C2010-659 M2040-723 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2010-659
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V1)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M2040-723
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Kenexa Talent Optimization Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 32 Q&As

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NO.1 What percentage of organizations in the world are currently looking to replace their Learning
Solution in the Market?
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a typical deal size for a Performance Management solution?
A. $100to$200k
B. S200 to $300k
C. S300to$400k
D. $400to$500k
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the typical selling cycle for a Performance Management solution?
A. 1 to 3 Months
B. 3 to 6 Months
C. 6 to 9 Months
D. 9 to 12 Months
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Kenexa LMS (Learning Management System) performs all of the following capabilities
EXCEPT:
A. Manage classroom training, elearning, mobile content/surveys and online social learning
B. Automate the development and publishing of modular personalized learning
C. Administrate content and courses in support of a classroom, online or social learning
environment
D. Track and report on curriculum status for a learner
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can Kenexa's Performance Management solutions improve the way organizations are
managing their performance solutions today?
A. Provide access to standard appraisals
B. Built in standard goal setting
C. Functionality that allows a manager to determine pay increases based on performance
D. Provide a suite of capabilities along with deep competency knowledge
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the most important benefit of having a Performance Management system for an
organization?
A. The ability to set eligibility and enforce compensation policy for merit, bonus, stock, and variable
pay programs with linkages to performance
B. The ability to compare candidates side-by-side for fair and accurate analyses
C. The ability to have an integrated process that supports and provides insight into performance
ratings, organizational skills, and compensation management.
D. The ability to configure any number of performance forms to any process
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: M2180-716
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM MobileFirst Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 36 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2180-183
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Mesage Broker V7.0, Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2010-650
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Endpoint Manager Solutions V1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 This action script is run:
regset "[HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Test]" "testString" = "testValue"
In the fixlet debugger, the key gets correctly created under the HKEY_CURRENTJJSER branch.
However, when running the same action by targeting the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client
in the TEM Console, the agent states that the action ran to completion but the same key is not there.
What is the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The TEM client reported action completion in error.
B. Some action script commands, like regset, work only in the fixlet debugger.
C. The fixlet debugger is more forgiving when it comes to proper action script form.
D. The fixlet debugger runs under the users' context; the TEM client runs as LocalSystem.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The IT operations team wants to install IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) in a network
where proxy Internet access is required. The proxy requires a non-Windows credential to be entered
each time the Internet is accessed. Where is this registry key set:
[HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\BigFix\Enterprise ServertGatherService]?
A. On the TEM server
B. On the Top Level Relay
C. On the Internet DMZ relay
D. On a client with direct Internet access
Answer: A

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9. The Message Level Encryption feature of IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2 (TEM) increases
security but adds an additional load to the environment. What system hardware changes should be
made to the TEM environment to accommodate the additional load?
A. Add more RAM to the relays and clients
B. Add more disk space to the TEM server and clients
C. Add more RAM to the TEM server or decrypting relay
D. Add more processing power to the TEM server or decrypting relay
Answer: D

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10. Which dashboard can be viewed to check the average number of BES Clients per relay?
A. Systems Lifecycle
B. Deployment Overview
C. System Configuration
D. Deployment Health Checks
Answer: B

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11. Which statement accurately describes one of the requirements for running the Client
Deployment Tool for Windows?
A. The target should have port 52311 open.
B. The target must be in an Active Directory domain.
C. The target must have file and print sharing services enabled.
D. The deployment system should be any UNIX or Windows relay.
Answer: C

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12. Internet access must be configured through a proxy server in order for the IBM Tivoli
Endpoint Manager (TEM) server to download Windows patches from the Internet. How is this
accomplished?
A. The TEM server does not need Internet access. Content can only be added manually.
B. Configure the BES Gather Service to use a service account that has open access to the Internet.
C. Configure specific proxy server rules only permitting the TEM clients to go to specific domains
such as Microsoft.com or Adobe.com.
D. In the Window's registry set the BES Gather Service to bypass proxy server for local address.
Restart the BES Gather Service when finished so changes will take effect.
Answer: B

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13. How is an IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client system most efficiently promoted to a
relay?
A. Manually run the reiayinstaill.exe package on the desired system
B. All TEM clients are already relays so no additional configuration is necessary
C. Use the relay install task from the TEM Console to install the relay on the desired system
D. Create a fixlet using the TEM Software Distribution tool to distribute and execute the relay install
on the desired system
Answer: C

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14. Which account should a remote console operator use to access the IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) Console?
A. LDAP/AD Domain credentials
B. TEM Masthead and password
C. SQL Server Admin credentials
D. TEM Private Key and password
Answer: A

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15. If usePre70ClientCompatibleMIME is set to false for the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager server,
what is the recommended number of components in a baseline?
A. <15
B. <250
C. <1000
D. <2000
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the purpose of the Gathering Interval drop-down menu setting in the Advanced
Masthead parameters within the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) Administration Tool?
A. This option determines how often new content is replicated to relays.
B. This option determines how often the server gathers new content for the sites.
C. This option defines how often server replication occurs between two TEM servers.
D. This option determines how long the clients wait without hearing from the server before they
check whether new content is available.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement describes how to manually set download throttling for clients within IBM
Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)?
A. Access the relay diagnostic page on the TEM server at http://127.0.0.1:52311 /rd and modify the
Client Download Speed setting.
B. Access the TEM console, take action on the task BES Client Setting: Download Throttling, in the
Action Parameter window set the Bytes/sec value, and click OK.
C. Access the TEM console, select File > Preferences, under the bandwidth throttling section, update
the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
D. Access the TEM Administration Tool, select System Options, select bandwidth throttling, and
update the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Power Management has recently been added to the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)
license. What is the first step to view the site contents in the console?
A. Launch the TEM Administration Tool and enable the site under the Masthead Management tab
B. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and specifically subscribe the
TEM server
C. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and subscribe any Windows
computer
D. Enable the Power Management site under the License Overview dashboard within the BigFix
Management domain
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) for Security and Compliance Analytics (SCA)
installed?
A. From the TEM component installer
B. Take action on the task Deploy and Run Security Checklist
C. Take action on the task Download TEMA Installer, then run the setup file manually
D. Enable the site in the License Overview Dashboard in the TEM Management Domain
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company has a Trend Anti-Virus environment and they have purchased IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) for Core Protection. What needs to occur first to begin the process of gathering the
site content?
A. Activate all 23 analysis found under the Core Protection Module in the TEM Console.
B. Go to the license overview dashboard under BigFix Management domain and enable Trend Micro
Core Protection Module, Trend Reporting.
C. Core protection requires its own server. Review hardware requirements, build the server, and
setup ODBC connections back to the TEM server.
D. Once the Core Protection Module has been purchased, an e-mail is sent from Trend containing
the necessary download links and information. Follow the e-mail instruction to download and install
Trend on the TEM server.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has a functioning IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) server and has successfully
deployed TEM for Core Protection Module (CPM) in their network. They want to use Trend's Web
Reputation technology so that they can have real time and control to prevent Web-based malware
from infecting their end users' computers. What do they need to do to get this process started?
A. CPM does not have Web Reputation capability.
B. Take action on the task Set URL Filtering on the end users' computers.
C. Ensure CPM clients are at V10.6 or greater. Take action on the Core Protection Module
-
Endpoint Upgrade task.
D.Take action on the task Enable Web Reputation on the Proxy Server to enable communication
between CPM and the proxy.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y45
Nom d'Examen: HP (Architecting HP Network Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 A physical server connects to two Fibre Channel (FC) switches.
The server supports eight virtual machines (VMs) with VMware version 5.1.
The VMs need to be zoned and given access to remote storage on an individual basis.
Which feature must the network architect ask the SAN administrators to enable FC ports?
A. N-port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
B. Virtual Fabrics or Virtual SANs (VSANs)
C. Credit-based flow control
D. World Wide Name (WWN) virtualization
Answer: A

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NO.2 A network architect is planning a complete access layer and core upgrade for a customer's
campus LAN. The campus has four large buildings, each requiring between 1000 and 3000 edge
ports. Which factor will play a primary role in determining whether the network architect needs to
plan a two-tier or three-tier topology for the campus LAN?
A. Whether the customer can afford the core switches that support intelligent Resilient Framework
(IRF).
B. The number of fiber links between each building and the building where the core switches reside.
C. Whether the customer requires a wireless solution.
D. The high number of edge ports that the solution requires.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which customer requirement is mostly likely to cause the network architect to search for an
HP alliance solution?
A. An infrastructure Detection System/Infrastructure Prevention System (IDS/IPS) for virtualized
environment.
B. Load balancing appliances for a data center solution
C. Network management solution for a multi-vendor environment
D. High-capacity, Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)-capable router
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has a solution that continuously backs up date for critical services to a disaster
recovery site. The customer requires a one hour recovery point objective (RPO) and a 90 minute
recovery time objective (RTO). The network architect is scoping the bandwidth requirements and
has used perfmon to analyze the write throughput for the critical service over a month. The results
are:
-Peak throughput= 2000 Mbps -Average throughput = 500 Mbps -Highest average throughput in
hour increments =1000 Mbps -High average throughputin 90 minuteincrements =750 Mbps
What is the bandwidth requirement for the continuous backup?
A. 500 Mbps
B. 750 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 2000 Mbps
Answer: B

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5. A network architect is planning a solution for a customer who has voice over IP (VoIP) phones
with Ethernet connections and also voice over WLAN (VoWLAN) phones that use 802.1g
connections:
-The VoIPphones and VoIPserver use standard 802.1pvalue 5 and DillServ Code Point(DSCP)46 to
mark voicetraffic. -The VoWLAN phones use WiFi Multimedia(WMM)to send their traffic at high
priority.
What should the network architect do to ensure that voice traffic on its way to a VoWAN phone is
given the correct priority?
A. Make sure that the APs support 802.1n even if they also support backward compatibility with
802.11b/g.
B. Make sure that the VoWLAN phones support 802.1X and VLAN tagging.
C. Make sure that the switches convert the 802.1p values to VMM values.
D. Make sure that the MSM Controller has a DSCP map assigns DSCP 46 to the highest WMM
category.
Answer: D

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6. A customer is seeking an upgrade for their campus LAN network. Currently the customer has
access layer switches that support 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports and one Gigabit uplink. The
customer wants performance in the upgrade but also wants to minimize costs.
The network architect has used the network Traffic Analyzer (NTA) for intelligent Management
Center (IMC) to collect information about the access layer uplinks. These are the results:
-For switches on Floor1,the peak utilization in 650 Mbps on a Gigabit uplink.On most days, the
utilization peaksat about 400 Mbps. Peaks usuallyoccur briefly. -Forswitches on Floor 2, thepeak
utilizationis 800 Mbpson a Gigabit uplink. During active period, the utilizationoften remains near
800.
Which is the most appropriate plan for oversubscription in the new access layer? (For this question,
think only about oversubscription and not customer needs for redundancy)
A. 48.1 in all locations
B. 48.1 on floor 1 and 24.1 on floor 2
C. 24.1 on floor 1 and 4.1 on floor 2
D. 24.1 in all locations
Answer: A

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7. A customer needs a storage solution that uses the current IP network and delivers data to
serves in the manner of a file server. Which family of solution meets this need?
A. HP P6000 Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA) disk arrays.
B. HP Virtual Library Systems (VLS)
C. HP IBRIX X9000 Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. HP 3PAR 10000 storage arrays
Answer: A

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8. HOTSPOT
A network architect designing HP addresses for a customer. The network architect is planning a core
routing solution and these VLANs:
-Management (network infrastructure) -Guest -Employees_Wired_Floor1
-Consultants_Wired_Floor1 -Voice_Floor1 -Consultants_Wireless -Employees_Wireless
The customer requires access control lists (ACLs) that control users according to their identity, guest,
employee, or contractor. As far as access control is connected, the customer does not care about
whether a user has wireless or wired access.
Which scheme enabled ACLs to use the forest rules to control users according to the customer
requirements? (Drag and Drop the marker on the scheme)
Answer:

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Nom d'Examen: Hitachi (HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED SPECIALIST -NAS ARCHITECT)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Hitachi (HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED EXPERT -REPLICATION SOLUTIONS ARCHITECT)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two ways to improve initial copy time for ShadowImageon a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Use SATA disks.
B. Distribute S-Vols across additional parity groups
C. Increase the copy pace.
D. Decrease the copy pace.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A large bank requires a no data loss copy of data over 250 km away, however they have
budget restrictions which prevent them from placing hosts at the in-region intermediate site and
therefore will always recover at the out-of-region remote location.
Which solution meets the requirement?
A. a three data center multi-target
B. a three data center cascade solution
C. a TrueCopy cascade off of a ShadowImagecopy
D. a Hitachi Universal Replicator cascade off of a ShadowImagecopy
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which tool is used to capture workload data in a VMware environment?
A. RIAT
B. SAR
C. glance+
D. RMF magic
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator to continuously replicate a database's data
and log volumes.
Which two statements describe what will happen? (Choose two.)
A. A database checkpoint will be created upon failover.
B. At recovery time, the database will reconcile logs and transactions.
C. In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D. In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 A customer has experienced a disaster and has failed over to their Hitachi Universal Replicator
copies at the secondary site. They have acquired new servers and storage for their production
facility and they are ready to return operations to the production facility as quickly as possible.
Which two fallback procedures apply? (Choose two.)
A. Order devices in the HORCM file from the lowest change rate to the highest change rate.
B. Replication pairs can be suspended to allow changed tracks to be managed using the bitmap.
C. Perform the initial copy with the -nocopy option to allow operations to resume immediately.
D. Initial copy is required from the recovery site back to the production site.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which two workload metrics are used to calculate replication bandwidth requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. disk latency
B. read/write ratio
C. host response time
D. total MB/sec throughput
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 The customer's administrator estimates that the time required to bring up the network is one
hour; the time required to bring up recovery hosts will be two hours; and that the time required to
failover storage and present to hosts is thirty minutes. The recovery process must be done in
sequence. The customer has a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of three hours.
What is the difference between the RTO and the estimated time to recover?
A. The customer will be over their RTO by one hour.
B. The customer will be under their RTO by one hour.
C. The customer will be over their RTO by thirty minutes.
D. The customer will be under their RTO by thirty minutes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator (HUR) and does not have sufficient network
bandwidth. During a peak write workload, the customer overflows their HUR journals and
replication suspends in error.
What happens when the customer issues a resychronization?
A. HUR performs an initial copy.
B. HUR performs a differential copy.
C. HUR performs a no copy.
D. HUR performs an at-time split.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EX0-004
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Management of Risk Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

Code d'Examen: EX0-008
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Agile Scrum Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BIMF
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Business Information Management Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is a method for obtaining senior management commitment and support for
understanding and managing risk?
A. Developing management of risk guidance handbooks and training materials
B. Ensuring the risk management function has a direct reporting line to a senior executive
C. Escalating risks from the programme, project or operational perspectives to higher levels as
required
D. Making formal assessments of management of risk implementation in areas of concern
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is a primary step within the 'M_o_R process'?
A. Manage
B. Assess
C. Embed
D. Control
Answer: B

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7. Which is a goal of the 'assess - evaluate' step?
A. Evaluate the impact, probability and how soon risks might occur
B. Calculate the net effect of risks facing the activity
C. Assess and evaluate the effectiveness of procedures for managing risks
D. Evaluate the net cost of planned risk responses
Answer: B

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8. Which is a responsibility of the M_o_R manager role?
A. Define risk tolerance thresholds
B. Prepares risk workshop materials
C. Defines how much risk should be taken
D. Ensures a risk review process is in operation
Answer: D

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9. Which is a responsibility of the team?
A. Ensure adequate resources are available to implement the risk management strategy
B. Run risk management workshops
C. Develop the risk improvement plan
D. Identify and escalate risks
Answer: D

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10. What is represented graphically on a 'summary risk profile'?
A. Proximity of the identified risks
B. Information found in the risk register
C. Summary of the actions required to respond to the risks in the activity
D. Risk capacity for the activity
Answer: B

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11. Which is a use of a risk management maturity model?
A. Enabling organizations to benchmark their current risk management capability
B. Checking the state of current risk management
C. Identifying areas where application of risk management can be improved
D. Carrying out an enterprise wide assessment
Answer: A

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12. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The primary outcome of the [ ? ]
principle is that organizations learn from their mistakes.
A. achieves measurable value
B. provides clear guidance
C. creates a supportive culture
D. facilitates continual improvement
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is NOT a recommended risk response option for an 'opportunity'?
A. Enhance
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Reduce
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the programme perspective?
A. Schedule of business products to time and cost
B. Availability of skills to deliver services to new and existing customers
C. Implementing new business practices across organizational boundaries
D. Legislation that affects core business activities
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a threat?
A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which describes the 'reduce a threat' risk response option?
A. Perform an action to minimise the impact and/or probability of the risk
B. Remove the cause of the threat
C. Obtain an insurance policy to cover the impact should the risk occur
D. Partake in a pain/gain contract with another party for the specified risk
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: A2180-379
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2, Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2180-606
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Business Modeler Advanced Edition V7.0, Business Analysis and Design)
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 A process analyst has completed a process model and is required to validate it. One of the validations is
to ensure that there are no potential situations where a sequence of activities can be repeated indefinitely.
Using Static Analysis, how can the process analyst quickly validate that there are no sequence of tasks
that can potentially loop endlessly.?
A. 1. Run the Path Cycles Report.
2. Identify the cycle name assigned to each path cycle in the process and correlate that back to the
process model.
B. 1. Run the Activity Throughput Report.
2. Identify the throughput of all activities that deliver more outputs per hour than anticipated.
C. 1. Run the Activities Unable to Start Report.
2. Identify any activities that were not able to be invoked within the process, locate the preceding
construct that connects a downstream activity's output to an upstream activity's input.
D. 1. Run the Paths Unable to be Followed Report.
2. Identify any paths that were not able to be invoked within the process, and locate the preceding
construct that connects a downstream activity's output to an upstream activity's input.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A process analyst runs a simu lation that yields inaccurate results. Which analysis would a process
analyst use to identify looping paths in the process?
A. Path Cycles
B. Activity Throughput
C. Activities Unable to Start
D. Paths Unable to be Followed
Answer: A

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NO.3 When is it applicable to use a query?
A. To extract and view information about the elements of models.
B. To extract, view and print information about the elements of models.
C. To extract and view information about model elements and simula-tion results.
D. To extract, view, and print information about model elements and simula-tion results.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is an example of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
A. Supplier response time.Supplier? response time.
B. Customer Order processing time.
C. Order must be processed within 3 days.
D. Working duration of a business process.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which steps would a process analyst take when conducting a simu-lation of "what-if" scenarios for a
business process instance?
A. Make a copy of the simula-tion snapshot, rename it, change the attributes for the "what-if" scenario and
re-run the simula-tion and analyze the results
B. Make a copy of the simula-tion profile, rename it, change the simula-tion attributes for the "what-if"
scenario and re-run the simula-tion and analyze the results.
C. Right click on the simula-tion profile, select Profile Analysis > New Profile and change the attributes for
the "what-if" scenario and then re-run the simula-tion and analyze results
D. Right click on the simula-tion snapshot, select Profile Analysis > Profile Specification, and change the
attributes for the "what-if" scenario and then re-run the simula-tion and analyze results.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
A process analyst needs to simulate the behavior of the whole business process. How should the
simula-tion profile be set to accomplish this requirement?
A. Set the simula-tion to Evaluate all sub processes.
B. Set the Maximum number of process invocation to 10.
C. Set the simula-tion to Use resource time required as a task processing time.
D. Set the date of the Process availability ends greater than the Process availability begins.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A process analyst needs to conduct analysis on cost and duration of marketing related tasks in the
current process. In the current process, there are five possible paths. The process analyst needs to
identify the cost and duration of marketing related tasks for each path. The process analyst has decided
to create a classifier of Marketing to be assigned to the tasks in the current process. Which analysis
should be used?
A. Activities by classifier analysis.
B. Classifier cost and duration analysis.
C. Process case summary analysis.
D. Process classifier cost and duration analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A process analyst is simulating a process and the results indicate excessive wait times at some of the
activities. Which static analysis report would be useful in determining the cause of the excessive wait
times?
A. Activities by organization
B. Activity cost and duration
C. Activity resource and role leveling
D. Qualified resources for role
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A2090-543
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9.7 Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M2150-225
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Internet Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2 (000-M225))
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2090-919
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Informix 11.70 System Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 A client is concerned about the number of security agents currently supported on its
desktop
image.What should the Systems Engineer discuss?
A.How IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliances reduce the risk of
infection
or breach and mitigate the need for most security agents on the desktops.
B.How completing a data classification study allows IBM to help the client understand where
its
data security risks reside
C.How the IBM Security Tivoli Endpoint Manager strategy will provide the client with one
framework for host management and security.
D.How Enterprise Scanner can automate vulnerability assessment and reduce the number of
endpoint security agents currently used
Answer: C

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NO.2 Based upon discussions with several different vendors, a client has requested an
Intrusion
Prevention System (IPS) competitive evaluation What action should the seller take?
A.Request that IBM Global Finance deliver evaluation equipment to the client
B.Complete the evaluation agreement form, and deliver the equipment to the client for testing
C.Provide the client with a tour of a Global Security Operations Center to showcase the
capabilities of IBM security products
D.Work with a Systems Engineer to schedule delivery and implementation of the evaluation
product in the client's environment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An IBM Business Partner is planning a security event for several regional clients in the
retail
industry.Which actions should an IBM Business Partner take?
A.Research Partner World for industry specific marketing collateral.
B.Engage Techline to develop presentation content and help pay for a local venue.
C.Ask IBM to send out invitations to their clients
D.Engage their IBM Security Representative and request support from Channel Marketing to
obtain a reputable industry security speaker for the event and to help with invitations,
presentation
content, and logistics
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the name of the IBM Security research and development organization?
A.Global Security Operations Center
B.X-Force
C.X-Cert
D.Security Intel Resource
Answer: B

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NO.5 A potential client recently acquired a competitor organization and is considering
infrastructure
consolidation.The person responsible for this project is new to the role and needs advice on
how
to start the process
What action should the seller take?
A.Meet with the client and Systems Engineer to discuss options and help design the new
architecture.
B.Send the client some case studies from PartnerWorld showing similar requirements.
C.Send the client the latest solutions guide that describes the best use and deployment of
IBMSecurityappliances
D.Schedule a meeting with the technical staff from both organizations to gain an
understanding of
the existing architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the best way to educate a potential client on the full range of
IBM security
solutions and win the account?
A.Send the client the latest Gartner report showing IBM Security in the magic quadrant along
with
McAfee, Symantec, and SourceFire.
B.Show the client a reference from a client in the same industry
C.Recommend another vendor in the portfolio that may be able to meet the client
requirements.
D.Arrange a workshop in partnership with IBM Security to demonstrate IBM Security's X-
Force
and strong solutions
Answer: D

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NO.7 IBM Security positions its products as being "ahead of the threat-How is this achieved?
A.By relying on regular signature updates.
B.By not disclosing vulnerabilities until a patch is available for products.
C.By not relying on signature updates and utilizing heuristics.
D.By taking feeds from the global Managed Security Services operation and providing
updates in
real time.
Answer: C

IBM examen   M2150-225   M2150-225 examen   M2150-225

NO.8 How does IBM Security offer end-to-end security today?
A.Continually looks for product updates and enhancements and actively works with the
Research
& Development community.
B.Evaluates gaps in the IBM Security Framework and acquires the appropriate security
vendors
C.Offers a free Security Health Scan to any client.
D.Provides the industry's broadest information security training and certification courses.
Answer: A

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Meilleur HP HP2-K35 HP2-H29 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: HP2-K35
Nom d'Examen: HP (Support and Service HP StoreOnce Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-H29
Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions - Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Why is HP focusing on specific retail and hospitality sub-verticals?
A. because POS is a critical part of their business and these customers are quick to adopt new
technologies
B. because these sub-verticals are likely to already use HP solutions in printing and IT
C. because these sub-verticals represent the most progressive businesses in the retail industry
D. because these sub-verticals are likely to convert to POS technologies in the near term and have
the capital to do it
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which HP digital signage solutions include HP DreamColor calibration features?
A. HP LD4220tm and LD4729tm digital signage displays
B. HP LD4730 and LD4730G micro-bezel video wall displays
C. HP LD4210 and LD4710 LCD digital signage displays
D. Any HP 47-inch diagonal digital signage display
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h71016.www7.hp.com/dstore/html/pdfs/HP_LD4730_LD4730G_data_sheet_1213
11%20FINAL.pdf(page 1, HP dreamcolor quality)

NO.3 What does HP do to reduce clutter of cables in retail solutions?
A. Offers wireless peripherals
B. Adds more features to eliminate peripherals
C. Offers rechargeable peripherals
D. Provides powered ports for peripherals
Answer: D

HP examen   HP2-H29   HP2-H29   HP2-H29 examen
Reference:http://www.flotech.net/news/hp_unveils_touch_enabled_point_of_sale_system_retail_s
t ores(see second para)

NO.4 What value consideration does HP POS hardware offer over PCs?
A. Precise graphics capabilities to display exact colors and sharp lines
B. Appropriate number and type of ports to reduce cable clutter
C. Wireless connectivity to enable public wifi hotspots
D. Portability to operate anywhere in the store
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why is HP well positioned for retail?
A. HP is the world's largest technology company.
B. HP offers a total end-to-end portfolio.
C. HP is the first in the industry to offer retail solutions.
D. HP operates in over 170 countries.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which capability does WES 7 OS provide?
A. Space savings
B. Single-channel content capability
C. Integrated interactive multi-touch
D. Thin bezels
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mwRLE7Fa-wE

NO.7 Due to globalization, consolidation, and format blurring occurring in the retail industry, what
does a retailer need to do in order to remain competitive?
A. Be in the right place with the right offering
B. Offer the same access to information that customers get online
C. Offer an integrated connected experience
D. Enable the consumer to control the shopping experience
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which display has interactive touch-screen capabilities?
A. HP LD4210 and LD4710 LCD digital signage displays
B. HP LD4220tm and LD4729tm digital signage displays
C. HP LD4730 and LD4730G micro-bezel video wall displays any
D. HP 47-inch diagonal digital signage display
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2140-136
Nom d'Examen: HP (Rational Application Developer v7)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-B102
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals Exam)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-W100
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP TippingPoint Next Generation Firewall Security Products Professional)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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NO.1 A developer has made multiple changes to a Java file. How can the developer switch
back to an earlier
version of the file?
A. context pop-up menu > Compare with > Local history
B. context pop-up menu > Edit > Reset
C. context pop-up menu > Replace With > Local history
D. File > Replace with Previous
Answer: C

HP examen   certification C2140-136   C2140-136

NO.2 What can a developer manage using Rational Application Developer?
A. a single workspace per workbench
B. multiple workspaces per workbench by switching between workspaces
C. multiple workspaces per workbench by organizing them as views
D. multiple workspaces per workbench with additional licenses
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Software Analysis feature?
A. It provides a runtime environment to test web resources.
B. It is used to debug a wide range of applications.
C. It assists in gathering data and metrics on applications that are running.
D. It can perform automated code reviews without executing applications.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many perspectives can a developer interact with at a time in each workbench
window?
A. as many as needed if the perspectives are organized as Views
B. as many as needed by selecting File > Switch Perspective
C. only one
D. one per View
Answer: C

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NO.5 A developer has deleted a file from a Java package in a workspace and would like to
recover it.
What must the developer do after selecting the Java package?
A. use the context pop-up menu option "Restore from Local History"
B. use the context pop-up menu option "Recover from File System"
C. click File > Deleted files and select the file
D. click File > Undo
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which application development framework is used to develop highly available, reliable,
scalable, and
secure Web and client-server applications in Java?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
B. Standard Widget Toolkit (SWT)
C. Java Enterprise Edition (JavaEE)
D. Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI)
Answer: C

HP   C2140-136 examen   C2140-136

NO.7 A developer has closed a view in the Java perspective in the workbench.
What can the developer select to recover the original Java perspective layout?
A. Window > Delete Perspective
B. Workbench > Use Defaults
C. Window > Reset Perspective
D. File > Recover Defaults
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are three methods of importing a file from the file system to a Java package in the
workbench?
(Choose three.)
A. drag and drop the file from the file system to the package in the workbench
B. use the Import wizard from the File menu in the workbench
C. use the context pop-up menu on the package in the workbench and select Import
D. select Search > File in the workbench and then use the Import tab
E. use the context pop-up menu on the file in the file system and select Import to Workbench
Answer: ABC

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Code d'Examen: HP2-Z33
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Unified Wired-Wireless Networks and BYOD)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP5-Z01D
Nom d'Examen: HP (Delta - Selling HP Networking Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 20 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-B110
Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP Imaging and Printing Supplies)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 A network administrator configures 802.1X authentication on a wireless network set with an
HP 830 Unified Wired-Wireless Controller. The administrator configures a RADIUS scheme named
radius1 and a Domain scheme name domain1. Which other configuration will enable 802.1X?
A. Option A
B. OptionB
C. OptionC
D. OptionD
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator changes the setting for VLAN 200 on an HP 830 switch from tagged to
untagged.
How will this change affect the traffic sent over VLAN 200?
A. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded to untagged VLAN 1.
B. Tagged management traffic can no longer be sent on VLAN 200.
C. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will have the 802.1Q tag removed.
D. Tagged traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded without changing the 802.1Q tag.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://community.spiceworks.com/topic/ 430141-understanding-vlans-with-tagged-andu
ntagged-traffic

NO.3 A branch location is deploying standalone wireless access points (APs).
What can be used to configure and manage these APs? (Select two.)
A. Access Controller
B. Web interface
C. IMC/UAM
D. IMC/EAD
E. CLI
Answer: B,E

HP   HP2-Z33   certification HP2-Z33   HP2-Z33   HP2-Z33 examen

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
What does AP Echo Interval of 10 seconds indicate?
A. The access controller should send the access point (AP) an echo request every 10 seconds to
ensure that the AP is still operational.
B. The access point should send the access controller an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure
that the LWAPP tunnel is up.
C. The access point should transmit a beacon every 10 seconds.
D. The access point should send the client an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure that the
client is still connected.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization wants to upgrade their wireless network to allow employees to connect using
their 802.11ac enabled devices. Which HP access points meet this requirement?
A. HP 425
B. HPMSM466
C. HP MSM430
D. HP 560
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is planning to deploy HP MSM466-R access points in an extreme cold environment
to interconnect to the Unified Wired-WLAN Module in the HP switch.
Which requirement is needed to accomplish this?
A. NEMA 4X enclosures should be used to house the access points.
B. Switch ports must support PoE.
C. PoE redundancy must be enabled on the interface.
D. Access Point must deploy internal antennas.
Answer: A

HP examen   HP2-Z33   HP2-Z33   certification HP2-Z33

NO.7 When accessing the wireless network in 802.1X with EAP-TLS, what do the user endpoints
require?
A. username and password of the user's account
B. client certificate or root certificate
C. client certificate and root certificate
D. MS-CHAPV2 to be configured
Answer: C

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Reference:http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc739638(v=ws.10).aspxv

NO.8 An organization implements an N+1 redundancy for its access controllers (ACs). When the
primary AC fails, the access points (APs) successfully fail over to the standby AC. However, when the
failed AC comes back in to service, the APs do not switch back to the original AC.
What could cause this to happen?
A. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 1.
B. APs determine which AC to connect to based on load.
C. APs do not fail back to the original AC.
D. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 7.
Answer: D

HP examen   certification HP2-Z33   HP2-Z33 examen   HP2-Z33 examen
Reference:http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Ro
uters/H3C_MSR_50_Series_Routers/Configuration/Operation_Manual/13WLAN_Volume(V1.05)/ 20
0909/ 648837_1285_0.htm(configuring capwap dual-link, 4th row of the table, last column)

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J67
Nom d'Examen: HP (Architecting Multi-site HP Storage Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 121 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-B101
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals - Exam)
Questions et réponses: 107 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to ensure data integrity on physical disks within the proposed HP 3PAR StoreServ
Storage array.
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage component calculates the value of the disk T10 Data Integrity
Feature (DIF)?
A. HP Service Processor
B. HP InServ Controllers CPUs
C. Controller Cache Algorithm
D. HP 3PAR Gen4 ASIC
Answer: D

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Explanation:
In "The HP 3PAR Architecture"

NO.2 Your customer wants to upgrade their existing HP 3PAR S-Class array. A competitor has
suggested a non-HP storage array. Your conversation with the customer focuses on the notable
architectural enhancements within the new generation of HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 platforms.
Which enhancements should you focus on? (Select two.)
A. The tightly coupled cache-coherent clustering is built into the Gen4 ASIC.
B. The 64-bit OS enables scalable headroom for performance and capacity.
C. Logical Disk regions have increased from 256 MB and are now 1 GB in size.
D. Write cache mirroring is now implemented N+N across the 7x00 controllers.
E. New HP StoreServ 7x00 now supports 16Gb Fibre Channel speeds.
Answer: A,D

HP examen   certification HP0-J67   certification HP0-J67   HP0-J67

NO.3 Your customer is migrating to VMware vSphere 5. Your solution includes HP 3PAR StoreServ
Storage with licenses for Remote Copy and sub-LUN tiering. The customer is interested in
implementing VMware Storage I/O Control and asks if there are any interoperability concerns with
your solution.
How does the inclusion of VMware Storage I/O Control impact your solution?
A. VMware Storage I/O Control integrates into the proposed solution with no changes.
B. HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware must be added to the solution
C. HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization cannot be used in the solution.
D. VMware Adaptive Queue Depth Throttling must be enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are tuning a customer HP StoreOnce Backup System and notice they are running backups
20 hours a day. As a result, backup jobs are running during the same time as replication jobs. What
can you do to limit the available bandwidth and not saturate the link with replication traffic?
A. Enable multiplexing and set concurrency to 1.
B. Enable concurrency control.
C. Map multiple source libraries into a single target library.
D. Enable compression.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Hewlett-Packard StoreOnce B6000 Configuration Manual Page 40: "7. The use of "concurrency
control" is not necessary if replication is run at separate times from backups and housekeeping.
However, if the customer wants to run replication at the same time as backups or housekeeping,
they can use concurrency control to limit the available bandwidth so as not to saturate the link with
replication traffic"

NO.5 You are discussing cost reduction quality management, and business growth with a client.
According to industry best practices, which CxO are you meeting with?
A. CFO
B. CIO
C. COO
D. CEO
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your customer wants to replicate backup data from branch offices to a primary data center
where an HP StoreOnce 4430 Backup System using HP StoreOnce Catalyst is located. The main
backup application is HP Data Protector 7.01. The file and application servers have Windows 2003,
Windows 2008, and SUSE Linux 9 and 10 installed. The file and application servers are a mixture of
32 and 64 bit Windows and Linux operating systems. As a long-term strategy, thecustomer wants to
migrate all services to the primary data center. No additional hardware can be purchased for the
branch offices, and complexity should be minimized.
Which deduplication type is optimal for this customer?
A. source-side
B. application-side
C. target-side
D. server-side
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Target-side NOT: "Target-side Deduplication can be used for conventional B2D environments where
full bandwidth links are used between the media server and the Deduplicated Data Store."
Application-side NOT exist. Source-side NOT: Limited agents for OS to use Source-side. 32bits not
compatible. "Note that the backed up system must support deduplication (64-bit Windows systems
or 64-bit Linux systems only, for details, see the support matrices)." Server-side: "Note that the
Media Agent client must support deduplication (64-bit Windows systems or 64-bit Linux systems
only, for details, see the support matrices). Server-side deduplication enables you to deduplicate
data from clients on which deduplication is not supported locally."
7. The customer has two HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage systems split between two data
centers. Used capacity of each storage system is 10 TB of data. The replication between data centers
is performed via Ethernet/IP , and the replication technology used will be asynchronous. The
maximum RPO is 30 minutes, and the daily change rate of the customer data is a maximum of 0.5%,
which is created evenly throughout the day.
What is the required minimum bandwidth between the data centers for replication?
A. 40 Mb half-duplex
B. 20 Mb full-duplex
C. 5 Mb half-duplex
D. 10 Mb full-duplex
Answer: D

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8. During an HP customer assessment workshop, the Alinean report shown in the exhibit is
created. Which cost saving should you highlight in your presentation when positioning the value of
HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Technologies?
A. planned downtime
B. unplanned downtime
C. application integration
D. power and cooling
Answer: A

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9. A customer has an environment spanning two data centers in a campus environment. The
primary storage is an HP 3PAR StoreServ 10400 Storage System. Data is replicated between sites
with an RPO of zero. The customer is questioning whether they have adequate protection. You
suggest creating a DR site and actively replicate the data to it.
What are the implications of adding the third data center to the data network?
A. 10GbE links are needed to interconnect the HP StoreServ 3PAR arrays.
B. The data network must support Converged Enhanced Ethernet.
C. The data network must support OpenStack.
D. A dedicated subnet must be added to interconnect the 3PAR arrays.
Answer: D

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10. A customer has an environment that spans two data centers in a campus environment. The
primary storage is HP 3PAR 10400, and data is replicated between sites with an RPO of zero.
Recent bad weather has caused flooding near the customer site and the customer is questioning
whether they have adequate protection. You suggest creating a data center at a remote location
and actively replicating the data to it. The customer is concerned that the remote link to the third
site will have insufficient bandwidth and will create a local replication bottleneck.
Which statement addresses the customer concerns?
A. Synchronous Long Distance will schedule data replication outside high latency periods autonomic
array
B. Data is transmitted in a continuous stream with write order being handled by the target array.
C. Remote Copy uses multiple connections over the same link from multiple volumes.
D. Over provisioning of the remote link will ensure enough bandwidth is always available for
replication.
Answer: C

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11. You are performing a demo of an HP StoreOnce 2620i Backup System solution in combination
with HP Data Protector. All best practice guidelines for the VTL and Data Protector have been
adhered to. However, you receive the following error when formatting a cartridge in a
previously-created VTL.
[Normal] From: MMA@demo.local "Drive_Demo" Time: 4 / 23 / 2013 10:26:09 PM
Tape0:0:0:0C
Initializing new medium: "[4E94F289] 4E94F289"
[Major] From: MMA@demo.local "Drive_Demo" Time: 4 / 23 / 2013 10:26:10 PM [90:51]
Tape0:0:0:0C
Cannot write to device ([87] Wrong parameter. )
[Major] From: MMA@demo.local "Drive_Demo" Time: 4 / 23 / 2013 10:26:10 PM
Initialization of medium failed.
[Normal] From MMA@demo.local "Drive_Demo" Time: 4 / 23 / 2013 10:26:14 PM
Ejecting medium Tape0:0:0:0C".
What must you do to perform a successful demo?
A. Add an iSNS-Server in the media Server iSCSI configuration, and restart the iSCSI service.
B. Disable "Automatically discover changed SCSI address" for the VTL drives, and rescan the library.
C. Disable "SCSI Reserve /Release (drive)" for all of the drives and robotics in the environment and
rescan the library.
D. Change the maximum transfer length of the iSCSI initiator in regedit. and restart the media server.
Answer: C

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12. A customer with a B-Series fabric needs to establish FC-IP connectivity between their primary
data center fabric and DR data center fabric to enable replication. However, they are concerned that
fabric instability issues in the DR fabric will cause issues in their production fabric.
Which HP storage solution should you recommend?
A. HP C-Series MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Fabric Switch
B. HP 1606 Extension SAN Switch
C. HP SN6000 FC Switch
D. HP MPX200 Multifunction Routed
Answer: D

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13. Which HP 3PAR StoreServ feature improves storage array resiliency?
A. Persistence Ports
B. Virtual Lock
C. Virtual Copy
D. Virtual Domains
Answer: A

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Explanation:
"To provide greater resiliency and to avoid dependency on host multi-pathing software, HP 3PAR
StoreServ has introduced a new feature called Persistent Ports." - in HP 3PAR High Availability
14. You are designing a storage solution for a customer concerned about storage availability
during code upgrades. Which HP 3PAR Port Persistence node identity handles host I/O requests,
thus providing greater resiliency during code upgrades?
A. Guest
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Native
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Persistent Ports This is a really cool feature as well - it gives the ability to provide redundant
connectivity to multiple controllers on a 3PAR array without having to have host-based multipathing
software.How is this possible? Basically it is NPIV for the array. Peer controllers can assume the
world wide names for the ports on their partner controller.
If a controller goes down, it's peer assumes the identities of that controller's ports, instantaneously
providing connectivity for hosts that were (not directly) connected to the ports on the downed
controller. This eliminates pauses for MPIO software to detect faults and fail over, and generally
makes life a better place.
15. A customer asks you to architect a new SAN fabric infrastructure comprised of redundant
fabrics for a test/dev server environment. They need to provide selective connectivity for
array-based snapshots from disk arrays hosted on the existing Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer
director-based production fabric, to hosts on the test/dev fabric. A customer requirement is to
utilize a differentvendor for the test/dev fabric, Which SAN technology enables the test/dev SAN
fabric to maintain interoperability between the two fabrics and meet the stated requirements?
A. HP B-Series with Transparent Router (TR)
B. HP H-Series with Transparent Router (TR)
C. HP B Series with Inter-VSAN Routing (iVR)
D. HP H-Series with Inter-Fabric Routing (IFR)
Answer: B

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