2013年8月31日星期六

Le plus récent matériel de formation Business-Objects QAWI301V3.0

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Code d'Examen: QAWI301V3.0
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web Intelligence XI 3)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true of the Web Intelligence default behavior when performing a UNION
combined query method? (Choose two.)
A.It performs a UNION.
B.It performs a UNION ALL.
C.It returns all values less the duplicates.
D.It returns all values including the duplicates.
Answer:A C

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NO.2 You are working with a set of store revenues. All stores have positive revenue values. Which formula
should you use to display the variance value of the Revenue measure in your document when data
tracking is active?
A.=[Revenue]/RefValue([Revenue])
B.=[Revenue]/PreValue([Revenue])
C.=[Revenue]/HistValue([Revenue])
D.=[Revenue]/BaseValue([Revenue])
Answer:A

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NO.3 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The Data
Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of the tracked
data?
A.Contact the system administrator.
B.Edit the document in tracking mode.
C.Open the document in tracking mode.
D.Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true of grouping sets when using smart measures? (Choose two.)
A.It is a set of dimensions that generates a result for a measure.
B.It is a set of measures that generates a result for a dimension.
C.The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that dimension that are included
in the report.
D.The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that measure that are included in
the report.
Answer:A D

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NO.5 Which DaysBetween() function syntax should you use to calculate the number of years since your birth,
assuming the date object is Birth_date?
A.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate ) / 365.25
B.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] , CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
C.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
D.=DaysBetween(CurrentDate() ; [Birth_date] ) / 365.25
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which statement describes the performance impact that data tracking has on report refresh times,
assuming that the data changes but the number of rows retrieved and the data volume stays the same?
A.It will refresh up to three times faster.
B.It will refresh up to three times slower.
C.It will refresh faster each time the report is refreshed.
D.It will refresh slower each time the report is refreshed.
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are using calculation contexts within an If() function. Which two are valid contexts for use in an If()
function? (Choose two.)
A.In Cell
B.In Row
C.In Block
D.In Report
Answer:C D

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NO.8 Where in Web Intelligence Rich Client interface can you see the data source for a document built on a
local data source?
A.Global Settings
B.Report Settings
C.Query Properties
D.Document Properties
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which two functions can you use to concatenate the strings "England" and "New" to create the string
"New England"? (Choose two.)
A.Left()
B.LeftPad()
C.LeftTrim()
D.Concatenate()
Answer:B D

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NO.10 You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the average
of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers and revenue and
create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function should you use in the
variable?
A.NoFilter()
B.NoRank()
C.AverageAll()
D.IgnoreFilter()
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: 060-DSFA680
Nom d'Examen: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.2 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.6 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.7 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.9 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.10 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.13 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.14 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.15 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.17 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

Altiris   060-DSFA680   060-DSFA680   060-DSFA680

NO.18 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 050-V710-SESECURID
Nom d'Examen: RSA (CSE RSA SecurID 7.1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 To activate a Group on an Agent Host in another RSA ACE/Server Realm, you would
A. enable External Authorization.
B. edit the Realm Secret of the Agent Host.
C. mark the Agent Host "Open to All Locally Known Users".
D. duplicate the Agent Host record in the Group's home Realm.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Enabling the system parameter option "Store time of last login in token records"
A. increases authentication performance.
B. is required in order for Lock Manager to prevent replay attacks.
C. is required for accurate "Last Login" information in a Token Report.
D. only applies if the Agent Host is using the RSA ACE/Agent 5.0 Authentication Protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Offline Authentication feature is intended to allow
A. the capability for a user to temporarily disable the Agent software while the user is working
offline.
B. an RSA SecurID authentication to be processed by a Replica server when the Primary server
is offline.
C. a user to complete an RSA SecurID authentication through the local Agent if the local
Agent computer is offline.
D. several users to use a single RSA SecurID token so that they can share another user's
computer if their own computer is offline.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a server in the
Primary instance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Authentication Manager version 7.1 terminology, a "Server Node" is used to
A. Replicate the database in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
B. Gather and re-direct authentication requests from Agents to an available server.
C. Provide a stand-alone database available to either a Primary or Replica instance.
D. Provide additional authentication services in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a component of the technology used within an RSA SecurID
token?
A. algorithm B.
private key C.
time source D.
seed record
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 050-ENVCSE01
Nom d'Examen: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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Code d'Examen: SC0-411
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Hardening the Infrastructure (HTI))
Questions et réponses: 410 Q&As

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NO.1 If you are looking for plain-text ASCII characters in the payload of a packet you
capture using Network Monitor, which Pane will provide you this information?
A. Summary Pane
B. Packet Pane
C. Collection Pane
D. Hex Pane
E. Detail Pane
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are configuring a wildcard mask for the subnet 10.12.24.0 / 255.255.248.0.
Which of the following is the wildcard mask to use for this subnet?
A. 0.255.255.255
B. 10.12.24.255
C. 0.0.248.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 0.0.7.255
Answer: E

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NO.3 What is the function of the HFNetChk tool from Microsoft?
A. To check for the current Hotfixes that are available from Microsoft
B. It is an upgrade to the Windows Update tool for checking on all updates
C. It is the tool that must be run prior to installing IIS 5.0
D. It is the tool that checks the network configuration of all web servers
E. To record what Hotfixes and service packs are running on the Windows machine
Answer: E

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NO.4 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine.
When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few
configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function
of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently
logged in users.
Answer: D

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NO.5 In order to properly manage the network traffic in your organization, you need a
complete understanding of protocols and networking models. In regards to the
7-layer OSI model, what is the function of the Transport Layer?
A. The Transport layer allows two applications on different computers to establish, use,
and end a session. This layer establishes dialog control between the two computers in a
session, regulating which side transmits, plus when and how long it transmits.
B. The Transport layer manages logical addresses. It also determines the route from the
source to the destination computer and manages traffic problems, such as routing, and
controlling the congestion of data packets.
C. The Transport layer packages raw bits from the Physical (Layer 1) layer into frames
(structured packets for data). Physical addressing (as opposed to network or logical
addressing) defines how devices are addressed at the data link layer. This layer is
responsible for transferring frames from one computer to another, without errors. After
sending a frame, it waits for an acknowledgment from the receiving computer.
D. The Transport layer transmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the
transmission of a stream of bits over a physical medium. For example, this layer defines
how the cable is attached to the network adapter and what transmission technique is used
to send data over the cable.
E. The Transport layer handles error recognition and recovery. It also repackages long
messages, when necessary, into small packets for transmission and, at the receiving end,
rebuilds packets into the original message. The corresponding Transport layer at the
receiving end also sends receipt acknowledgments.
Answer: E

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NO.6 You are creating the contingency plan, and are trying to take into consideration as
many of the disasters as you can think of. Which of the following are examples of
technological disasters?
A. Hurricane
B. Terrorism
C. Tornado
D. Virus
E. Trojan Horse
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 When you took over the security responsibilities at your office, you noticed there
were no warning banners on any of the equipment. You have decided to create a
warning login banner on your Cisco router. Which of the following shows the
correct syntax for the banner creation?
A. banner login C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
B. login banner C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
C. banner login Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
D. login banner Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
E. banner logging C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this
device. C
Answer: A

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NO.8 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on
a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you
do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the
term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and
accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections
between a dialup client and a dialup server.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are creating the contingency plan for the network in hospital where you just
started working. The network has about 300 PCs, about 50 Servers, and is
interconnected into some of the critical patient systems for monitoring purposes.
What is the appropriate level of backup power for this type of network?
A. Building Generator
B. Personal UPS
C. Alternative Fuel-Cell Technology
D. Server Rack UPS
E. Electrical Company
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following fields are found in a user account's line in the /etc/passwd
file?
A. The User Identifier assigned to the user account
B. The home directory used by the user account
C. The number of days since the user account password was changed
D. The full name for the user account
E. The number of days until the user account's password must change
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 One way to find out more about a company's infrastructure layout is to send email
to a non-existent user of the target organization. When this email bounces back as
undeliverable, you can read the message source. Which of the following pieces of
information can be derived from the returned message source?
A. Target company's email server's hostname.
B. Target company's email server's public IP address.
C. Target company's internal IP addressing scheme.
D. Target company's email server's application name and version, if provided.
E. Target company's employees' email addresses.
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system,
and want the permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent
directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
Answer: B

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NO.14 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user
of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible
consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
Answer: AC

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NO.15 You have recently hired an assistant to help you with managing the security of your
network. You are currently running an all Windows environment, and are
describing NTFS permission issues. You are using some demonstration files to help
with your discussion. You have two NTFS partitions, C:\ and D:\ There is a test file,
C:\DIR1\test.txt that is currently set so that only Administrators have Full Control.
If you move this file to the C:\DIR2 folder, what will the permissions be for this file?
A. The file will have the same permissions as D:\DIR2
B. The file permissions will remain the same
C. The file permissions will be lost
D. The file permissions will convert to Everyone - Full Control
E. The permissions will be set to whatever the CREATOR OWNER permissions are for
the D:\ partition
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following is implemented in an IPv6 environment, which helps to
increase security?
A. EFS
B. IPsec
C. Caching
D. S/MIME
E. Destination and Source Address Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.17 In your network, you manage a mixed environment of Windows, Linux, and UNIX
computers. The clients run Windows 2000 Professional and Windows NT 4.0
Workstation, while the Servers are UNIX and Linux based with custom
applications. During routine administration you successfully ping several nodes in
the network. During this you are running a packet capture for further analysis.
When examining one of the frames you notice that the Ethernet address for the
source is 1ED0.097E.E5E9 and that for the destination is 1ED0.096F.5B13. From
this information you gather that:
A. They are in different networks
B. The destination address is in the 1ED0 subnet
C. The network cards are by the same manufacturer
D. The destination address is in the 1ED0.09AA subnet
E. The source and destination share the same MAC subnet
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-411   SC0-411

NO.18 The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and
E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively
and interface S0 is connected to the Internet.
The objective is to allow two hosts, 192.168.20.16 and 192.168.10.7 access to the
Internet while all other hosts are to be denied Internet access. All hosts on network
192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 must be allowed to access resources on both internal
networks. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required
to make this possible.
A. access-list 53 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 80 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 53 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access-list 80 permit 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0
E. int S0, ip access-group 53 out
F. int S0, ip access-group 80 out
Answer: BDF

SCP   SC0-411   SC0-411   SC0-411

NO.19 When a new user account is created in Linux, what values are assigned?
A. Shell_GID
B. SetGID
C. SetUID
D. UID
E. GID
Answer: DE

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NO.20 In Windows 2000, there are four methods of implementing IPSec. They are:
1. Require Security
2 - Request Security
3 - Respond Only
4 - No IPSec Policy
Your network hosts many servers, and different security policies are in place in
different locations in the network. The Clients and Servers in your network are
configured as follows:
-You have servers numbered 1-9, which have a policy stating they require no
network traffic security.
-You have servers numbered 10-19, which have a policy stating they are not
required to be secure, but will encrypt network traffic if the client is able to receive
it.
-You have servers numbered 20-29, which have a policy stating they are required to
be secure and all network traffic they deliver must be secured.
-You have clients numbered 60-79 that are required to access secure servers 20-29.
-You have clients numbered 80-99 that are not required to access secure servers
20-29, but are required to access servers 1-9 and 10-19.
Based on the Client and Server configuration provided above, which of the
following computers will implement IPSec method 2?
A. Computers numbered 1-9
B. Computers numbered 10-19
C. Computers numbered 20-29
D. Computers numbered 60-79
E. Computers numbered 80-99
Answer: B

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NO.21 You are reviewing the Xinetd configuration file for the ftp service. If the following
line found in this file, what is the line's function?
redirect = 192.168.10.1 3456
A. That only 192.168.10.1 can make ftp requests
B. That only hosts in the 192.168.10.0/24 network can make ftp requests
C. That only 3456 connections are allowed to the ftp service on 192.168.10.1
D. That the overall Xinetd configuration has redirect lines in it
E. That the ftp service is redirected to IP 192.168.10.1 on port 3456
Answer: E

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NO.22 In order to add to your layered defense, you wish to implement some security
configurations on your router. If you wish to have the router work on blocking TCP
SYN attacks, what do you add to the end of an ACL statement?
A. The IP addresses for allowed networks
B. The port range of allowed applications
C. The word Established
D. The word Log
E. The string: no service udp-small-servers
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000
network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates
to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security
Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different
Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power
Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security
areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic
between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a
DC.
Answer: A

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NO.24 In the last few days, users have reported to you that they have each received two
emails from an unknown source with file attachments. Fortunately the users have
listened to your training and no one has run the attached program. You study the
attachment on an isolated computer and find that it is a program that is designed to
execute a payload when the system clock registers 10:10 PM on February 29. Which
of the following best identifies the type of program is the attachment?
A. Mail Bomb
B. Logic Bomb
C. Polymorphic Virus
D. Stealth Virus
E. Polymorphic Trojan
Answer: B

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NO.25 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has
been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that
it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network
ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
Answer: E

SCP   SC0-411   SC0-411   SC0-411

NO.26 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are
the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify
what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE

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NO.27 You wish to add a new group to your Linux system. The group is called
SCNP_Admins, and is to be given a Group Identifier of 1024. What is the correct
command to add this new group?
A. addgroup SCNP_Admins -id 1024
B. groupadd -g 1024 SCNP_Admins
C. addgroup SCNP_Admins id/1024
D. groupadd id/1024 g/SCNP_Admins
E. groupadd g/1024 SCNP_Admins
Answer: B

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NO.28 You work for a mid sized ISP on the West Coast of the United Kingdom. Recently
you have noticed that there are an increasing number of attacks on the Internet
routers used in the company. The routers are physically secured well, so you can be
somewhat confident the attacks are all remote. Which of the following are legitimate
threats the routers are facing, under this situation?
A. Damaged Cables
B. False Data Injection
C. Social Engineering
D. Unauthorized Remote Access
E. Denial of Service
Answer: BDE

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NO.29 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E

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NO.30 As you become more involved in the security and networking of your organization,
you wish to learn the exact details of the protocols in use. It is suggested to you, by a
friend, that you check the RFC for each protocol. What is an RFC?
A. An RFC is a program that has a searchable index to troubleshoot network problems.
B. An RFC is a document that discusses issues surrounding the Internet, networking
technologies, and/or networking protocols.
C. An RFC is a hidden resource, which can be called up via the Windows Help file to
identify details about networking protocols.
D. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on the Internet.
E. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on an Intranet.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: PMI-100
Nom d'Examen: PMI (CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) Exam)
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NO.1 Risk mitigation includes all but which of the following:
A. performing contingent planning
B. Obtaining insurance against loss
C. Developing system (policies, procedures, responsibilities)
D. identification of project risks.
E. developing planning alternatives
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task?
A. Alter to task priorities.
B. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start.
C. Fast tracking or Crashing
D. Fast tracking.
E. Crashing
Answer: D

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NO.3 Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Develop project charter.
D. Create WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is in agreement with McGregor's concepts concerning
Theory X and Theory Y managers?
A. All of the other alternatives apply
B. Theory X managers tend to be autocratic whereas Theory Y managers are more likely to delegate
responsibility
C. Both 1) Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change,
and 2) Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
D. Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
E. Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change
Answer: A

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NO.5 Communication always makes use of.
A. words
B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. language
D. gestures
E. symbols
Answer: B

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NO.6 A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following will be required to perform simu-lation for schedule risk analysis?
A. Activity list and activity attributes
B. Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
C. Schedule data and activity resource requirements
D. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
Answer: B

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NO.8 Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance?
A. maintenance and calibration
B. warranty repairs
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. scrap
E. rework
Answer: A

PMI   certification PMI-100   PMI-100   PMI-100   certification PMI-100

NO.10 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved
project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.1 In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500   certification 100-500   100-500

NO.2 Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D

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NO.3 You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use
to accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B

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NO.4 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
Answer: setBodyHTML()

NO.5 Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C

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NO.7 Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle
database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e, Employeesm WHERE e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID
= m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m ON
e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no
duplicate values are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D

certification Zend-Technologies   100-500 examen   100-500   100-500

NO.11 You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10)) If column c1 is unique, which of the
following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   certification 100-500   certification 100-500

NO.12 Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies examen   100-500 examen   100-500

NO.13 You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <?php
$form->setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. <?php
echo "<form action=\"/uc/zend.php \" method=POST>";
C. <?php
$form->('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. <?php
$form->Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to
the PHP session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C

certification Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500

NO.15 Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state
when multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D

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FileMaker FM1-306 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FM1-306
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12 Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry
-Allow user to override during data entry
-Require not empty
-Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about scripts in a hosted FileMaker Pro 12 file? (Choose two.)
A. Two users may not edit the same script simultaneously using the Manage Scripts dialog.
B. Scripts in the hosted file can only be scheduled for server-side execution if Run script with full
access privileges has been enabled.
C. If a script opens and edits a record, and does not commit the record, scripts run by other users
will be unable to edit data in that record until the record is committed.
D. A script can use Get (RecordAccess) before continuing execution to determine whether or not
the current record in the hosted file has been locked by another user.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about overriding the default behavior of the Quick Find box
available in the Status Toolbar? (Choose two.)
A. The Perform Quick Find custom menu item must be installed.
B. The Show/Hide Quick Find script step will allow the user to hide the Ouick Find box.
C. The Get (QuickFindText) function will return the text entered into the Quick Find box.
D. The OnModeExit script trigger can be used to override a find request issued from the Ouick
Find box.
Answer: A,C

FileMaker   FM1-306   FM1-306 examen

NO.4 Which statement is true regarding resizing layout parts and objects in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If no Autosizing anchors are set for any object in a layout part, the layout part will expand to fill
the window as it is resized, but all objects will maintain a constant distance from the center of the
layout part.
B. A body part with the top and bottom Autosizing anchors checked in the Inspector will expand or
contract its height in List View as the window is resized instead of changing the number of rows
displayed.
C. If a field in a tab panel has all four of its Autosizing anchors checked in the Inspector, and the
tab control has none, then the field can expand maximally to the edges of the tab panel as the
window is resized.
D. To set the layout part styles to expand or contract horizontally with window resizing, the gray
line defining the right edge of the layout can be selected enabling the Autosizing anchors to be set
in the Inspector.
E. If multiple fields in a portal and the portal itself all have their left and right Autosizing anchors
checked in the Inspector, then the fields will expand proportionally within the portal as the window
is resized horizontally.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the minimal requirement to add an external FileMaker Data Source table occurrence
of
Inventory from a file called DEPT to the Relationships Graph of a file called PROD?
A. an active account associated with the [Full Access] privilege set in both PROD and DEPT
B. an active account associated with a privilege set that has the Manage External Data Sources
option checked in both PROD and DEPT
C. an active account associated with any privilege set in PROD, and an active account associated
with a privilege set that has view record access for the Inventory table
D. an active account in DEPT associated with a privilege set that has the Manage External Data
Sources option checked, and an active account with the [Full Access] privilege set in PROD
E. an active account associated with the [Full Access] privilege set in PROD and an active account
in DEPT associated with a privilege set that has view record access for the Inventory table
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table
from Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to
call a script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which extended privilege is required to connect to a hosted database from a FileMaker Go 12
client?
A. fmphp
B. fmapp
C. fmxml
D. fmios
E. fmiwp
F. fmxdbc
G. fmreauthenticate (n)
Answer: B

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NO.8 A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes
automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM1-306   FM1-306   FM1-306 examen

NO.9 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: VCP-310
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI3)
Questions et réponses: 435 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following files are part of a typical virtual machine?
Select 3 response(s).
A. Virtual Disk File (.vmdk)
B. Configuration File (.vmx)
C. VMotion Transfer File (.vmt)
D. Hardware File (.svr)
E. BIOS File (.nvram)
Answer: ABE

VMware examen   VCP-310   VCP-310

NO.2 Which of the following conditions can prevent a virtual machine (VM) that is part of a VMware HA
cluster from being powered on? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Guaranteed admission control cannot allocate sufficient CPU reservation for the VM.
B. The VM has been configured with a virtual disk on local storage.
C. Strict admission control is configured and insufficient resources are available for the VM.
D. There is a mismatch in CPU capabilities between one or more HA cluster nodes.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 What are two advantages of VCB over conventional agent-based methods of backing up a virtual
machine's (VM's) data? (Choose Two)
A. helps to eliminate the need for a backup window by using an online, snapshot-based backup
B. makes it possible to do both file-based and full-system backup of the same VM simultaneously
C. enables LAN-free backup and avoids undue overloading of the datacenter network
D. allows selection of files and directories from the guest file system of any VM
Answer: AC

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NO.4 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESX Server 3.x instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines.
B. VMware Server 2 does not support running virtual machines in a production environment.
C. The company wants the ability to use VMotion.
D. ESX Server 3.x offers better resource management and better performance.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 These machines WILL be run in production and WILL be used or managed remotely.
What is the correct solution based on these criteria?
Select the best response.
A. give the users VMware VirtualCenter Client 2.x and grant them permission to create virtual machines
on an ESX Server 3.x, with access to all necessary operating system ISOs
B. give the users VMware Workstation 6.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
C. give the users VMware Server 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
D. give the users VMware Player 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
Answer: A

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4. Which of the following is a benefit of ESX Server 3i over ESX Server?
Select the best response.
A. Increased Security and Reliability
B. Memory Overcommitment
C. Improved Fault Isolation
D. Dynamic Resource Allocation
Answer: A

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5. How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports 64-bit guest operating systems and VMware Server 2.x does not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports VMware VirtualCenter and VMware Server 2.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x supports Intel Virtualization Technology (VT) and VMware Server 2.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports 4 processor Virtual SMP and VMware Server 2.x does not.
Answer: D

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6. How does VMware Server 2 differ from ESX Server 3.5?
Select the best response.
A. VMware Server 2 supports legacy operating systems and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
B. VMware Server 2 enhances software development and testing and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
C. VMware Server 2 runs on a Linux host and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
D. VMware Server 2 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the advantage of installing backup client software in a Linux virtual machine's guest OS?
Select the best response.
A. This configuration enables immediate booting from a restored virtual machine.
B. This configuration enables LAN-free backup.
C. This configuration enables ESX Server to do backup and restore operations.
D. This configuration enables individual files to be selected for backup or restore.
Answer: D

VMware   VCP-310   VCP-310 examen

NO.7 A company decides to explore virtualization options for one of their departments. Their environment
and requirements are:
1. The users should be able to create their own virtual machines
2. The users are running Windows XP on their desktops.
3. Several virtual machines will be set up for each user and they should be able to run them all at the
same time.

NO.8 Which of the following are requirements for a VMware HA cluster? (Choose Two)
A. a private Ethernet network for all hosts
B. access to shared storage from all hosts
C. access to the virtual machine networks from all hosts
D. identical type and quantity of CPUs in each host
Answer: BC

certification VMware   VCP-310   VCP-310   certification VCP-310

NO.9 In configuring a VMware HA Cluster the System Administrator can configure Admission Control.
There are two options: Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints, or Allow
Virtual Machines to be powered on even if they violate availability constraints. If the System
Administrator chooses the option "Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints"
then which of the following apply? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware HA enforces the failover capacity defined for the cluster.
B. Only Virtual Machines with a high restart priority will be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
C. VMware HA restarts VM's on surviving host with the most unreserved capacity.
D. Virtual Machines running on failed ESX hosts will not be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
Answer: AC

VMware   VCP-310   VCP-310   VCP-310 examen

NO.10 How does ESX Server 3.5 differ from VMware Server 2?
Select the best response.
A. ESX Server 3.5 supports virtual machine clusters on the host server and VMware Server 2 does not.
B. ESX Server 3.5 accesses SAN storage and VMware Server 2 does not.
C. ESX Server 3.5 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and VMware Server 2 does not.
D. ESX Server 3.5 deploys a virtual machine from a template and VMware Server 2 does not.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about VCB proxy?
Select the best response.
A. It must be set to assign Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
B. It must be set to prevent assignment of Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
C. When running under Linux, it has no concept of Windows drive letter mappings.
D. It assigns Windows drive letters to Raw Device Mapped LUNs that are assigned to Windows virtual
machines.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following situations will result in VMware HA restarting virtual machines? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. An ESX Server in the cluster becomes isolated from the network.
B. A guest OS is manually powered off.
C. A guest OS fails.
D. An ESX Server in the cluster is put into Maintenance mode.
Answer: AC

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NO.13 An ESX Administrator is configuring a VMware High Availability Cluster for three hosts and their
resident VMs. The HA cluster will be configured to support a single host failure and resource
considerations must be enforced during a failover event. To accomplish this task:
Select the best response.
A. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the highest CPU limit value
B. There must be enough cluster resources based on memory and CPU reservations to account for any
potential host failure
C. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the largest configured available
memory
D. All potential remaining hosts during a failure event must be able to accommodate the sum total of all
VMs' available memory configurations
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following products are part of the VMware Infrastructure 3 software suite?
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware Virtual Desktop Manager
B. VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. VMware Update Manager
D. VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which two conditions can cause a combined VMware DRS/HA cluster to change to a red status?
(Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The current failover capacity is smaller than the configured capacity.
B. All the primary hosts in the cluster are not responding.
C. A DRS-only host has been added to an HA cluster.
D. DRS is in the process of balancing resources among hosts in the cluster when an HA event occurs.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Which of the following are required for installing VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. the server must be a physical machine
B. the operating system must be Windows
C. the server can be a physical or a virtual machine
D. the operating system can be Windows or Linux
Answer: BC

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NO.17 For a cluster with two ESX hosts, one using Intel processors and other using AMD processors, which
of the following statements is true? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMotion can move live VMs from one host to another
B. VMware DRS can load balance live VMs among hosts
C. Storage VMotion can move a virtual machine disk file from one storage device to another
D. VMware HA can failover VMS from one host to another in case of a host failure
Answer: CD

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NO.18 The users will use the software to edit memory settings after the virtual machine is installed.

NO.19 Virtual machine performance and high availability are more important than keeping costs low.

NO.20 What are two characteristics of VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. LAN-free backups of virtual machines can be performed
B. A plugin integrates the VCB UI into VirtualCenter
C. Image-level backups of virtual machines can be performed
D. File-level backups of Windows and Linux virtual machines can be performed
Answer: AC

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