显示标签为“CompTIA”的博文。显示所有博文
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2014年6月11日星期三

CompTIA meilleur examen JK0-019 JK0-702 CV0-001, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-019
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 637 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JK0-702
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 904 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CV0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 261 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
desktop?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company's
existing network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being
transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which of the following cloud services will the customer be responsible for securing
provisioned hosts?
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company's servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator needs to provide Internet access to all internal systems using a single IP
address. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. NAT
B. Virtual switching
C. VLAN tagging
D. PAT
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator is creating a new VM template and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public
cloud environment?
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
Answer: B

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2014年5月5日星期一

Certification CompTIA de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen FC0-U41, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FC0-U41
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 .Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following AT Attachment (ATA) standards supports transfer mode UltraDMA/133?
A. ATA-6
B. ATA-7
C. ATA-4
D. ATA-5
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products?
A. Energy Star rating
B. Standby mode
C. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
D. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
Answer: A

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NO.5 HOTSPOT
Identify the CNR slot in the image given below.

NO.6 .Which of the following cryptographic algorithm uses public key and private key to encrypt or decrypt
data ?
A. Hashing
B. Symmetric
C. Asymmetric
D. Numeric
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following storage device uses SRAM or DRAM?
A. USB flash drive
B. Solid-state drive (SSD)
C. Blu-ray Disc
D. CD drive
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card,
and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B

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Guide de formation plus récente de CompTIA 220-702

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Code d'Examen: 220-702
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition))
Questions et réponses: 422 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following drives
should the technician install?
A. Hard disk
B. Solid state
C. Floppy
D. Tape
Answer: B

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NO.2 A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important
consideration?
A. Operating system type of the connected PCs
B. Location of the wireless router
C. Number of PCs that will access the network
D. Number of available Ethernet ports on the router
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following locations would a technician use to add a Windows 7 computer to a domain?
A. System Properties
B. Windows Defender
C. Network and Sharing Center
D. Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following characteristics of Windows Gadgets is accurate?
A. Windows Gadgets are available in all versions of Windows since XP.
B. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista and Windows 7.
C. Windows Gadgets were introduced in Windows 7.
D. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the BIOS
setup.
Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The MBR is corrupt
B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system
C. A faulty CMOS battery
D. The BIOS requires a firmware update
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user is connecting to the Internet using a DSL modem. The user installs a new wireless router and is
unable to connect remotely to their computer, using Remote Desktop. The user had no issues connecting
remotely before the wireless router was installed.
Which of the following is the problem?
A. Wireless router drivers are needed.
B. Port forwarding is not setup.
C. The wireless router is defective.
D. VPN is not setup correctly.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The user cannot access some Internet websites, but can connect to resources inside the local network.
The technician successfully uses the ping command to test the user s connectivity. Which of the following
commands can the technician run NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. net /?
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. netstat -r
D. nbtstat -R
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician needs to change the process priority of a background program. Which of the following tools
is BEST for performing this function.?
A. MSCONFIG
B. Computer Management
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

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Meilleur CompTIA HT0-102 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: HT0-102
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration)
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

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NO.2 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home?
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following devices is required by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
for registered alarm connections in which alarm panels are connected to a telephone line?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-21
C. RJ-31X
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a wireless security system, the controller should monitor each transmitter for:
A. high interference
B. low radiation level
C. high humidity
D. low battery
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices?
A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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2014年4月21日星期一

CompTIA HT0-201 examen pratique questions et réponses

Beaucoup de travailleurs espèrent obtenir quelques Certificat IT pour avoir une plus grande space de s'améliorer. Certains certificats peut vous aider à réaliser ce rêve. Le test CompTIA HT0-201 est un certificat comme ça. Mais il est difficile à réussir. Il y a plusieurs façons pour se préparer, vous pouvez dépenser plein de temps et d'effort, ou vous pouvez choisir une bonne formation en Internet. Pass4Test est un bon fournisseur de l'outil formation de vous aider à atteindre votre but. Selons vos connaissances à propos de Pass4Test, vous allez faire un bon choix de votre formation.

Après une longue attente, les documentations de test CompTIA HT0-201 qui combinent tous les efforts des experts de Pas4Test sont finalement sorties. Les documentations de Pass4Test sont bien répandues pendant les candidats. L'outil de formation est réputée par sa haute précision et grade couverture des questions, d'ailleurs, il est bien proche que test réel. Vous pouvez réussir le test CompTIA HT0-201 à la première fois.

Code d'Examen: HT0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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NO.3 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.4 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

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NO.7 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.8 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.11 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.12 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.14 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.19 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.23 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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NO.24 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

CompTIA   HT0-201   HT0-201

NO.26 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

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NO.27 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.28 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.29 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

CompTIA   HT0-201   HT0-201   HT0-201   HT0-201

NO.30 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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PK1-003 dernières questions d'examen certification CompTIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: PK1-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

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NO.1 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.9 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.13 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.17 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.18 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.20 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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NO.21 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.22 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.23 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

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NO.24 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.25 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.26 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.27 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.28 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.29 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.30 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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CompTIA meilleur examen JK0-701, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-701
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C A+ Essentials (2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 491 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following media types is MOST affected by the RPM rating?
A. SDD
B. Flash
C. Tape
D. HDD
Answer: D

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NO.2 A PC is having its PSU replaced and the new PSU has a connector that is too large for the
motherboard's socket. Which of the following is needed to solve this issue?
A. The PC needs a NLX to ATX adapter.
B. The PC needs a 26-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
C. The PC needs a 24-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
D. The PC needs an AT-to-ATX adapter.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A computer fails POST with 1 long, and 2 short beeps. Which of the following components has MOST
likely failed?
A. Sound card
B. Power supply
C. NIC
D. Video card
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following Windows utilities will identify issues with drivers and programs running under
Windows XP?
A. System Information
B. Hardware Compatibility List
C. Dr. Watson
D. Program Compatibility Wizard
Answer: D

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NO.5 In the laser printing process, which of the following is true?
A. A wax-based substance is melted and applied directly to the media.
B. Toner is applied to a photoconductor and transferred to the media.
C. Heat is applied to heat-sensitive media to create an image.
D. Toner is sprayed to the media.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A technician has determined that the primary hard drive has failed and the defective hard drive has
been replaced. According to the troubleshooting process, which of the following steps would come
NEXT?
A. Document the setting.
B. Establish a probable cause.
C. Verify full system operation.
D. Question the user.
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-701   JK0-701   JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.7 Which of the following wireless network features grants the ability to select which devices connect to a
wireless network based on a device's hardware address?
A. WPA encryption
B. MAC filtering
C. NAT translation
D. SSID broadcasting
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701 examen

NO.8 Which of the following connector types is used on CAT5e cable?
A. RJ-45
B. ST
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification JK0-701   JK0-701 examen   certification JK0-701

NO.9 Which of the following memory types has a clock speed of 400MHz?
A. PC133
B. PC2700
C. PC3200
D. PC10600
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.10 When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST
approach?
A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help.
B. Ask open-ended Questions to narrow the scope of the problem.
C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain.
D. Ask focused Questions that lead the customer with yes or no Answers.
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.11 Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling
process?
A. Heatsink
B. Fan
C. Liquid cooling system
D. Thermal compound
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701

NO.12 Which of the following Windows Vista versions can be installed on a system with
512MB of RAM and a 40GB HDD?
A. Home Basic
B. Home Premium
C. Ultimate
D. Business
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation?
A. Windows Key + L
B. CTRL + ALT + Delete
C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace
D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   certification JK0-701   certification JK0-701

NO.14 A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the
external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem?
A. Upgrade the BIOS.
B. Release the LCD cutoff switch.
C. Toggle the WiFi switch.
D. Toggle the Fn key.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701   certification JK0-701

NO.15 A technician is installing Windows Vista onto a new computer locally. Which of the following describes
the method the technician would MOST likely use?
A. Floppy
B. DVD
C. Blu-Ray
D. PXE
Answer: B

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NO.16 802.11n has the potential to support up to:
A. 11Mbps.
B. 20Mbps.
C. 54Mbps.
D. 100Mbps.
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.17 A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of
which of the following classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701 examen

NO.18 A technician downloads an updated version of the driver for a sound card in Windows XP. After
extracting the driver, how would the technician update the driver?
A. Device Manager> expand 'Sound, video and game controllers'>double click on the
name of the sound card> Troubleshoot'
B. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Update Drivers>double click on 'Sound Card'
C. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Sound Devices > 'Update Driver'
D. Device Manager>Driver tab> Update Driver> Double click on the name of the sound card under 'Sound,
video and game controllers'
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701

NO.19 Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer's image stored on a hard drive?
A. Factory Recovery Partition
B. OEM Version
C. Recovery CD
D. Network Install
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701

NO.20 Which of the following connectors are used for musical equipment?
A. DVI
B. MIDI
C. 6-pin mini-DIN
D. HDMI
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification JK0-701   JK0-701   JK0-701   certification JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.21 A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which
of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this?
A. Bluetooth card
B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard
C. 802.11n WiFi card
D. Cellular WAN card
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701   certification JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.22 Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound?
A. VGA
B. S-Video
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-701   certification JK0-701   JK0-701 examen

NO.23 A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed
some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted? FIRST?
A. Reset the CMOS
B. Rollback to a restore point
C. Boot into Safe Mode
D. Reconfigure the BIOS
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-701   certification JK0-701

NO.24 Which of the following broadband technologies provides the FASTEST bandwidth speeds?
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. Fiber
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.25 Which of the following commands is used to bring up the interface that allows a
technician to edit startup services and applications?
A. msinfo32
B. cmd
C. dxdiag
D. msconfig
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-701 examen   certification JK0-701

NO.26 Every time the computer starts a technician receives a message saying that the computer case has
been opened. Which of the following can be disabled in the BIOS to prevent this message from
appearing?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Intrusion detection
C. WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Firewall
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-701   JK0-701   JK0-701

NO.27 A technician is repairing a keyboard issue, in which the keys are not typing anything within document
editing software. After Questioning the user, the technician discovers that the user was eating lunch while
typing the document. The technician comes to the conclusion that liquid was spilled onto the keyboard.
According to the troubleshooting theory, which of the following would be the NEXT step to follow?
A. Ask the user open-ended Questions.
B. Make closing notes of the repair.
C. Replace the keyboard with a new keyboard.
D. Verify the system functionality.
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-701   JK0-701 examen   certification JK0-701

NO.28 Which of the following IP ranges is Class C?
A. 192.0.0.0-223.255.255.255
B. 128.0.0.0-191.255.255.255
C. 1.1.1.1-126.255.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0-255.255.255.0
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   JK0-701 examen   JK0-701 examen

NO.29 A CRT monitor is flickering very rapidly, making it very uncomfortable to view. This can be corrected
by:
A. Adjusting the refresh rate.
B. Adjusting the dot pitch.
C. Degaussing the monitor.
D. Adjusting the resolution.
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   JK0-701   JK0-701   certification JK0-701   JK0-701 examen

NO.30 Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a
company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month?
A. Laser
B. Thermal
C. Inkjet
D. Dot Matrix
Answer: A

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CompTIA meilleur examen FC0-GR1, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FC0-GR1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Green IT Exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 A corporation plans to replace older office PCs with energy efficient personal computers in their 24 hour
help desk department. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?
A. Tablet notebooks with LCD monitors
B. Thin clients with LCD monitors
C. Thin clients with CRT monitors
D. Notebook computers with LCD monitors
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen   FC0-GR1

NO.2 Which of the following can conserve energy in a server room?
A. Sealing all potential cold air leaks
B. Installing additional cooling fans
C. Setting the temperature lower
D. Replacing the UPS with a generator
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.3 Which of the following standard symbols signifies that a packaged item was produced using
hazardous materials industry guidelines?
A. Energy Star
B. Energy Star 2.0
C. PCI-E
D. RoHS
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   FC0-GR1   certification FC0-GR1   certification FC0-GR1

NO.4 The power saving state in which a computer cuts power to all its unneeded parts and copies the RAM
content to the hard drive is called:
A. hibernate.
B. shutdown.
C. sleep.
D. hypervisor.
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen   FC0-GR1

NO.5 Which of the following terms is used when printing data on both the front and the back of paper?
A. Scaling
B. Copying
C. Duplex
D. Simplex
Answer: C

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.6 A user reports that their cell phone battery is dead and cannot hold a charge. Which of the following
should be done when disposing of the old battery?
A. Recycle the battery.
B. Store the battery.
C. Place battery in a sealed plastic bag.
D. Disassemble the battery.
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-GR1 examen   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.7 A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with
small memory footprints. How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four
servers, while not sacrificing functionality?
A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/or SpeedStep functionality so that processing power is
conserved.
B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office is
closed.
C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory
consumption.
D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization.
Answer: D

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.8 Which of the following is the recommended disposal method for used computers?
A. Trash can
B. Burial
C. Recycling center
D. Storage shed
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   FC0-GR1   certification FC0-GR1

NO.9 A large company would like to roll out thin clients to all retail terminals on its next upgrade. Which of
the following are potential risks of this IT plan?
A. Power consumption; thin clients use more energy than comparable workstations and therefore have a
larger energy footprint.
B. Single point of failure; if the thin client server goes down all machines are without functionality.
C. Centralized administration; IT staff cannot rely on localized group policy settings.
D. High cost of terminals; compared to traditional workstations, thin clients are very expensive and require
more maintenance.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following would allow a company to conserve energy and still provide a functional service
to its employees?
A. Configure all workstations with higher RPM fans
B. Use CRTs instead of LCD monitors
C. Use NAS to reduce the number of file servers
D. Configure all printers to print on single-side with low resolution
Answer: C

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.11 A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the
systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. Which of the following would be the MOST effective
way for the company to save on electricity usage?
A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity.
B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close.
C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers.
D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following would a company implement to help reduce the cost of electricity?
A. Shutdown/power policies
B. Redundant power supplies
C. Use optical mice
D. Social engineering policy
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   certification FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.13 A bank runs 50 workstations and would like to decrease its electricity costs, while not sacrificing
functionality. All of the workstations are high-end performance units that are intended to be used for
CAD-like applications. Analysts benefit from the added performance, but tellers and associates could use
more minimalist systems. Which of the following methods would decrease the banks electricity and
hardware costs?
A. Swap all teller and associate machines with servers.
B. Swap all teller and associate machines with thin clients.
C. Swap all teller and associate machines with low-profile high-end workstations.
D. Swap all teller and associate machines with laptops.
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1

NO.14 Which of the following methods effectively removes data from a hard drive prior to disposal? (Select
TWO).
A. Use the remove hardware OS feature
B. Formatting the hard drive
C. Physical destruction
D. Degauss the drive
E. Overwriting data with 1s and 0s by utilizing software
Answer: CE

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.15 Which of the following will allow multiple operating systems to run on one workstation?
A. FireWire
B. KVM
C. Virtualization
D. Terminal servers
Answer: C

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.16 A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size.
The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent
lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. Which of the following would be the
MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint?
A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting.
B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after hours.
C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting.
D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in the room.
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   FC0-GR1 examen   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1

NO.17 Which of the following technologies can save server space and cooling requirements?
A. Energy star ratings
B. Active solar panels
C. Network storage array
D. Blade servers
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   certification FC0-GR1

NO.18 Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating
systems simultaneously?
A. Virtualization
B. SMTP servers
C. ThinNet clients
D. Terminal servers
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1   certification FC0-GR1

NO.19 A company would like to dispose of old toner units. Which of the following would be the MOST
appropriate course of action to take?
A. Use an approved recycling program either through a vendor or local government agency.
B. Old toner disposal is the responsibility of the manufacturer. Call the appropriate number at the
respective company.
C. Toss the units into the trash. Toner cartridges are biodegradable.
D. Clean out the toner cartridges with warm water and place the clean units into the recycling collection.
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

NO.20 Which of the following needs to be recycled due to dangerous amounts of gas contained inside its
housing?
A. CRT
B. Toner
C. Surge suppressor
D. LCD
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-GR1   FC0-GR1 examen

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Code d'Examen: JK0-U11
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   certification JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11   JK0-U11
Explanation:
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol defined in the IEEE 802.11i standard
for wireless LANs (WLANs). It is designed to provide more secure encryption than the disreputably
weak Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). TKIP is the encryption method used in Wi-Fi Protected Access
(WPA), which replaced WEP in WLAN products. TKIP is a suite of algorithms to replace WEP without
requiring the replacement of legacy WLAN equipment. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but
wraps additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it. Like WEP , TKIP uses
the RC4 stream encryption algorithm as its basis.

NO.2 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and
provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11   JK0-U11
Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion cards to the computer.
These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser
cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer
motherboard instead of using riser cards.
Answer A is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion
slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal
computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such
as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total
of 46 pins.
Answer D is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed
by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as
modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi-channel audio, phone-line-based
networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise
interference through the physical separation of noise- sensitive elements from the motherboard's
communication systems.
Answer B is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable
devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the
older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD
card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm,
but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC
cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also
available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity
ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.

NO.3 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or
interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-U11   JK0-U11   JK0-U11   certification JK0-U11
Explanation:
Bandwidth is a term that refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface.
Bandwidth (or digital bandwidth) is a measurement of how much data can be sent in a period of
time. It is a data rate measured in bits. The standard unit of digital bandwidth is bits per second
(bps). In radio communication,
bandwidth (analogue bandwidth) is the range of frequencies occupied by the radio signals. The
standard unit of analogue bandwidth is Hertz (Hz).
Answer D is incorrect. In Web site designing, branding refers to the look and feel of a Web site.
Branding helps in differentiating a site from its competitors and also helps the customer to develop
a relationship with the Web site. The look and feel of a Web site comes through logo, fonts, color
schemes, and symbols used in the Web site. The overall look of the Web site should be consistent.
Answer B is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an environment to boot computers
using a network interface independently of available data storage devices like hard disks or installed
operating systems. PXE is also known as Pre-Execution Environment.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is a term that refers to the unsolicited e-mails sent to a large number of
e-mail users. The number of such e-mails is increasing day by day, as most companies now prefer to
use e-mails for promoting their products. Because of these unsolicited e- mails, legitimate e-mails
take a much longer time to deliver to their destination. The attachments sent through spam may
also contain viruses. However, spam can be stopped by implementing spam filters on servers and
e-mail clients.

NO.4 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of
the owner?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification JK0-U11   JK0-U11
Explanation:
The term malware refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including
spyware.
Malware is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.
Answer D is incorrect. Stealware is associated with Web bugs or spyware.
It is used by Web sites to affiliate marketing programs. Stealware attributes can be present in
peer-to-peer software applications. Spyware, adware, and stealware are similar types of malicious
code. Some Websites are advertised as free and allow information to be downloaded.
However, a pop-up window with a disclaimer should appear.
The disclaimer discloses information of possible charges or rerouting of the Web site. The users
should read the disclaimer to learn what charges are applicable before clicking the advertisement.
Otherwise, they will be liable to pay a large sum of money. The working procedure of stealware is
shown in the figure below:
Answer A is incorrect. Shareware is software designed to use freely or for a limited period available
on the Internet. After completing the given time, the user can either purchase it or legally remove it.
These types of products are usually offered either with certain features only available when the user
has purchased the product, or as a full version but for a limited trial period of time.
Answer C is incorrect. Freeware is computer software that can be used without paying for it.

NO.5 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips
would you most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Both MicroDIMM and SO-DIMM come in a 144 pin configuration, and are used for laptops.

NO.6 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act
1990? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or
purposes for which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or
unlawful processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
The Computer Misuse Act 1990 is an act of the UK Parliament which states the following statement:
Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale" (currently 5000). Unauthorized access with the intent
to commit or facilitate commission of further offences is punishable by 6 months/maximum fine on
summary conviction or 5 years/fine on indictment. Unauthorized modification of computer material
is subject to the same sentences as section 2 offences.
Answer B and C are incorrect. These two statements are stated in the Data Protection Act 1998.

NO.7 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Windows Explorer is a file management tool. Windows Explorer is a dual-pane window that can be
used for file management.
File management includes copying, moving, renaming, and searching files and folders.
Windows Explorer displays the resources on the system and the tools available in the operating
system in a hierarchical form, in its left window-pane.
It displays the contents of the folder that is selected in the left window-pane, in its right window-
pane.
Windows Explorer can also be used for starting programs or accessing system resources such as a
printer.
It can be accessed in Windows through the Start menu as follows:
Start>Programs>Accessories>Windows Explorer
Answer B and C are incorrect.
Device Manager and MSCONFIG are system management tools.

NO.8 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Sound cards are built-in to the motherboard. Sound card enables the computer to output sound to
audio devices, as well as accept input from a microphone. Most modern computers have sound
cards built-in to the motherboard, though it is common for a user to install a separate sound card as
an upgrade.
Answer D is incorrect. CD- ROM is a device used for reading data from a CD. This device is not built-
in to the mother board.
Answer B is incorrect. Mouse is a pointing device that detects two dimensional motion relative to its
supporting surface. This device is not built-in to the mother board.
Answer A is incorrect. Joystick is a device mostly used in gaming. It consists of a handheld stick that
pivots around one end, to detect angles in two or three dimensions.

NO.9 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer A is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track locations
nd activities when using the device.
Answer B is incorrect. Usage management tool is a type of parental control that allows parents to
enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer D is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.

NO.10 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista.
Which Windows utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Disk Management tool is used to alter, adjust, and configure partitions.

NO.11 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: D,B

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Explanation:
AGP and PCIe are the best slots for a video card. PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation
I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than
PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low-voltage differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It is
designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots. The bus is available in several different bus widths:
x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe
hardware will work on operating systems that support PCI. AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed
for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a
computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133
MB/second.
Answer C is incorrect. The Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion
bus designed as a superset of a 16-bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and
expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. EISA slots
are obsolete now.
Answer A is incorrect. PCIe and AGP slots are better than PCI slot for a video card.

NO.12 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and
file encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A smart card is a credit card-sized device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory. It
is used to securely store public and private keys for log on, e- mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption. To use a smart card, a computer must have a smart card reader attached with it.

NO.13 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.
The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000
Professional client computer reports that he is unable to access some files on the hard disk.
However, he is able to successfully log on and access other files. What should Mark do to resolve
the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
In order to resolve the issue, Mark should check the file permissions for the user on the hard disk
drive. According to the question, the user is able to access other files on the hard disk. Hence, the
most likely cause of the issue is that the user does not have sufficient privileges on those files.
Answer A is incorrect. Logging off and then logging on will not help resolve the issue.
Answer D is incorrect. Checking the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility will not help, as the
issue is related to permissions.
Answer B is incorrect. According to the question, the user is able to successfully log on to the
computer. This indicates that his user account is already enabled. Hence, there is no need to enable
it.

NO.14 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups
have many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: D,C

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Explanation:
An Administrator user account has full permissions on the computer.
The Power Users group has many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users.
Power users can perform any tasks except those reserved for administrators.
Answer B is incorrect. A Standard user account has a minimal set of permissions.
Each account in standard user mode is designed to store a separate set of settings for users.
The users are allowed to launch applications, create new documents, and modify basic system
configurations.
Answer A is incorrect. A Guest account is designed to provide temporary access to computers.
It does not store user-specific profile settings permanently. This account is disabled by default.

NO.15 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose.

NO.16 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer D is incorrect. An AGP card is an older type of video card for PC's.

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