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2014年4月21日星期一

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Code d'Examen: E20-885
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 163 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has two EMC VNX, one at the primary site and the other at a DR site located 100 km away.
The WAN connection between sites is a 100 Mb/s dark fiber link with 4 ms latency.
A previous storage administrator configured the pool LUNs for the file system on thin LUNs. The file
system is growing at a rate of 500 GB per week and is on a VDM. The new storage administrator reports
performance issues with the file system.
What is the most likely reason for the performance issue?
A. Thin LUNs are used for the file system.
B. The WAN link should be upgraded to an eLAN.
C. The VNX system requires an upgrade.
D. The file system has too many concurrent users connected.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer plans to connect ESXi 5.0 hosts to a new EMC VNX array. They want to take advantage of
the hardware-assisted locking feature in VAAI. Which is a feature of hardware-assisted locking?
A. Locking at the block level of a logical unit
B. Locking the LUN instead of the block level
C. Accessing a block from multiple hosts at the same time
D. Automatic enabling of safe data caching
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has a Windows-only environment connected to an EMC VNX for File at their main campus
site. The customer plans to install a new EMC VNX at a remote branch office site. The new VNX will be
used to implement a DR solution for their main campus VNX using several deduplicated file systems
shared and available to clients via CIFS.
Which solution do you recommend to the customer?
A. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
B. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
C. Use VNX SAN Copy to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from the
main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
D. Use VNX MirrorView/A to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from
the main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer recently purchased an EMC VNX to be connected to four ESXi 5.0 hosts via FC. Five of the
associated VMs (virtual machines) are running SQL Server 2008 R2. To avoid contention, the customer
wants the VM's database and log drives on separate datastores.
Which ESXi 5.0 feature would satisfy this requirement?
A. Network interface card teaming
B. Virtual Machine Anti-Affinity
C. Raw Device Mappings
D. VMDK Affinity
Answer: B

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NO.5 A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX.
The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in
Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?
A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A client has an EMC VNX configured with four storage ports, four 15-drive DAEs (disk array
enclosures) and a total of forty drives (20 NL-SAS and 20 SAS drives). The client is using RAID 5 (4+1)
RAID groups with a traditional LUN configuration.
What is the recommended SAS LCC port configuration for optimal performance?
A. Distribute drives evenly across all ports
B. Distribute drives on all odd ports
C. Distribute drives on all even ports
D. Distribute drives on a single port
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer requests a performance review of their EMC VNX before FAST Cache is implemented.
You notice a dedicated LUN has a write size of 4 KB, and the disks are performing writes of 8 KB. What is
causing this behavior?
A. Coalescing
B. Pre-fetching
C. Flushing
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has an Oracle ASM database on an EMC VNX with FAST Suite enabled. They observe
intermittent performance degradation due to momentary data hot spots caused by bursty transaction rates.
What recommendation would you make to help alleviate these hot spots?
A. Enable Fast VP on the ASM LUNs
B. Modify the ASM rebalance power priority
C. Enable Fast Cache on the ASM LUNs
D. Disable ASM storage management
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block and each host generates the same size I/O.
The customer reports the FC-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput than the
NFS-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. Host Patch levels
C. Ethernet Network
D. NFS version
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block.
The customer reports NFS-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput via NFSv4 versus
the FC-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. I/O size
C. Host Patch levels
D. NFS version
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator is attempting to vMotion a VM from one vSphere ESXi 5.0 host to another. The ESXi
servers are connected to three VNX arrays on the fabric. The vMotion fails. What is the most likely
reason?
A. RDMs are attached to the VM with different host LUN numbers on the ESXi servers.
B. There are active SnapView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
C. RDMs are in physical compatibility mode and not eligible for vMotion.
D. There are active MirrorView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are planning a CIFS DR solution for two existing EMC VNX. Each VNX has dual Control Stations.
Each VNX is also configured for a RecoverPoint protection solution on other VNX LUNs that are non-file
related. What recommendation would you give the customer concerning the CIFS DR solution?
A. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems before
configuring VNX Replicator
B. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems after
configuring VNX Replicator
C. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator,
and then configure IP aliasing on the destination VNX system Control Stations after configuring VNX
Replicator.
D. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator
and use RecoverPoint to provide protection of the source VNX Control Stations to the destination VNX.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has a CIFS DR solution with EMC VNX using a One-to-Many replication topology. The
customer asks you to explain replication behavior under the following conditions:
Production site failover or switchover to a DR site
Replication start and reverse is performed
What would you advise the customer?
A. The original production site remains a One-to-Many replication source for the other remaining DR sites.
B. All remaining replications sessions to the other DR sites are suspended.
C. The original production site goes into cascade mode to remain a replication source for the remaining
DR sites.
D. The DR site becomes the replication source for the remaining DR sites and the original production site
is marked as invalid.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer requires an asynchronous DR solution for an NFS-only client environment. The customer
wants the solution to be simple to implement. It was recommended they create a single NIS domain, and
use several NIS servers to provide centralized authentication to the NFS clients at both the source and
destination sites. The customer asks you whether they should consider using VDMs in this environment.
What do you advise?
A. VDMs would offer no advantages to this environment.
B. VDMs allow VMWare integration of NFS service environments.
C. VDMs eliminate the need for Usermapper in NFS environments.
D. VDMs allow for assignment of specific CPUs to a NFS server.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features
for their existing DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically
configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯
are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior.?
A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Click on the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A SQL database requires 1,000 I/O per second with 85% reads and 15% writes. If RAID 1/0 is used, what
is the total number of spindles required to generate the required I/O per second?
A. Ten 10K drives
B. Four 15K drives
C. One Flash drive
D. Fourteen 7.2K drives
Answer: A

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NO.17 A system administrator wants to migrate medical-imaging data stored on an EMC VNX. The host
connects to the VNX via iSCSI. The IP SAN infrastructure has recently been updated to support 1 Gb/10
GB switching. The system administrator wants to maximize data transfer performance. What would you
recommend?
A. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 9000 byte frame.
B. Use a 4 KB memory page size.
C. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 2400 byte frame.
D. Increase the write-aside value.
Answer: A

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NO.18 A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?
A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMC VNX.
Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and
replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions
preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?
A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer has two EMC VNX configured to replicate between sites. Each VNX has dual Control
Stations. The primary Control Station at the source site fails at 6 p.m. and reboots. At 8 p.m., the customer
completes DR testing and observes CIFS replication does not failover to the target site VNX. Why does
CIFS replication not failover to the target VNX during the DR test?
A. The control station of the primary VNX should have been failed back.
B. The control station of the second VNX should have been failed over.
C. The control station of the primary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
D. The control station of the secondary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-814
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

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NO.4 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

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NO.5 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.7 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

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NO.8 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.9 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

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2013年12月11日星期三

EMC meilleur examen E20-616, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-616
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.3 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.10 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.11 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.13 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.16 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.17 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.19 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-475
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Systems Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 231 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the recommended method for migrating Web Content Management (WCM) Page Builder
templates, blueprints, managed links, and associated content from a production environment to a testing
environment?
A. archive and install a DocApp
B. perform a repository-to-repository copy operation through WebPublisher
C. execute cabinet dump and load
D. use a deep export/import through WebPublisher
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service
(BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content
and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.5 A client is migrating their repositories from Windows to Linux. The database server is Oracle. The
content file stores are on NAS and made available over CIFS. For the migration, the client has done the
following:
installed Content Server and Oracle client on Linux using an installation owner account with the same
name on Windows
copied the tnsnames.ora from Windows to Linux
configured replacement Connection Brokers
added Services entries for the repositories on the Linux Content Server environment
attached to the NAS storage using NFS
updated for each repository the web_server_loc, smtp_server, r_host_name, r_install_domain, and
projection target attributes for server config using SQL to reflect the new server name
Which minimal high-level steps does the client need to take to complete the migration?
A. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows
to$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new
locations</UL
B. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
C. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to
$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
D. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
pdate the database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a
global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file
and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

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NO.10 A client has a Content Server, Site Caching Services (SCS), Content Transformation Services (CTS),
and Full-text Indexes installed on Windows/Oracle servers. The client wants to migrate Documentum
applications to Linux.
Which statement is true?
A. The client must migrate Oracle servers to Linux.
B. SCS is not supported on Linux.
C. CTS is not supported on Linux.
D. Content Server is not supported on Linux/Oracle.
Answer: C

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NO.11 In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are
most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

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NO.12 A client wants to upgrade a repository from 5.2.5 to 5.3. The repository has 8 million content objects
with an average size of 50K. The full text searching capability is required to be available within 24 hours of
the repository upgrade. The Full-text Index Server is installed on a separate server. The upgrade is
scheduled to happen in two months.
How can the client accomplish this objective?
A. configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
B. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes
C. configure a 5.3 Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent.
D. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are tasked with performing a Content Server upgrade.
To accomplish this, you do the following:
You first make a repository copy of the production repository by installing the Content Server.
You then create a new repository.
You then copy the database and file storage areas from production to the new environment.
To be successful, what must be true of the new repository copy after this operation is complete?
A. It must have the same Docbase ID as the production repository.
B. It must have a different owner than the production repository.
C. It must project to the same Connection Broker as the production repository.
D. It must have the same Database Connection string as the production repository.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is true about the dump and load operation?
A. Aspects associated with a dumped object are not included in the dump file.
B. Content stored in external file storage may be included in a dump file, but blob or turbo storage may
not.
C. The source and target repositories must be the same version, but may use different code pages.
D. Objects in the target repository will always have the same r_object_id as the corresponding object in
the source repository.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index
Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

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NO.16 A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the
resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a
single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which
components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer's question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

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NO.17 After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index
components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory
needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for
migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data
directory.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that
point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

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NO.19 Your client's Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom
applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations
preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client's
configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked
with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in
preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the
production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development
storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of
the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation
Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-335
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.2 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.4 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

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NO.5 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335 examen   E20-335   E20-335

NO.7 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

EMC   E20-335   E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.9 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.11 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.12 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-335   E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

NO.14 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-594
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

EMC examen   certification E20-594   certification E20-594

NO.2 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

EMC   E20-594 examen   E20-594 examen   E20-594

NO.3 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594 examen

NO.4 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-594   E20-594 examen   E20-594 examen

NO.5 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

EMC   E20-594   certification E20-594

NO.6 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

EMC   E20-594   certification E20-594   certification E20-594

NO.7 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.8 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

EMC   E20-594   E20-594

NO.9 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.11 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

certification EMC   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594

NO.12 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

EMC   certification E20-594   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594

NO.13 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

certification EMC   certification E20-594   E20-594

NO.14 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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Code d'Examen: EVP-101
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 31 Q&As

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NO.1 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification EVP-101   certification EVP-101

NO.2 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
Answer: A

EMC   certification EVP-101   certification EVP-101

NO.3 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

EMC   EVP-101 examen   EVP-101

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2013年11月27日星期三

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Code d'Examen: E20-017
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $60,000 for the implementation charges. Once
the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $60,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 35%; Month 6
B. 35%; Month 7
C. 76%; Month 6
D. 76%; Month 7
Answer: D

EMC   E20-017 examen   E20-017   E20-017 examen

NO.2 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can seamless movement of data
between tiers of storage be found?
A. Automate
B. Create Copies
C. Distribute
D. Store
Answer: A

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NO.3 The exhibit represents a Component Failure Impact Analysis (CFIA) for a company's IT infrastructure.
Several Requests for Change (RFC) were raised.
Which RFC should be considered a priority for implementation?
A. Deploying a switch architecture with no single point of failure
B. Clustering the backup server with multiple storage devices
C. Configuring the NAS device in an active-active mode
D. Adding more disk drives to the storage array
Answer: A

EMC   E20-017 examen   certification E20-017

NO.4 A company has a shared pre-staged infrastructure at an alternate site. This approach enables the
company to rebuild systems and applications in the event of a disaster.
What is the term for this strategy?
A. Hot site
B. Manual failover site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-017   E20-017   E20-017 examen

NO.5 A company has a system with three critical components as represented in the exhibit.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. Following an outage, certain
components seem to take longer to restore back to service than others.
What is the mean time to repair (MTTR) for Component 3?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 10 hours
Answer: C

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NO.6 Based on strategic plans regarding green initiatives, an IT department is considering server
consolidation in its data centers.
Which set of elements should be included in the business value analysis to maximize the ROI for such an
initiative?
A. Asset utilization, recovery of stranded assets, and cost of floor space and power
B. Productivity of staff, response to business conditions, and utilization of storage
C. Asset utilization, backup costs, and need for availability
D. Cost of floor space and power, FTE-managed TB of storage, and reduction in SLA penalties
Answer: A

EMC   E20-017   certification E20-017

NO.7 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can platform integrity be found?
A. Store
B. Automate
C. Create copies
D. Distribute
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-017   E20-017

NO.8 A company has estimated a cost of $220,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $30,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $1,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-017   E20-017   certification E20-017   E20-017 examen

NO.9 A company has estimated a cost of $240,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $35,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $2,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-017   E20-017 examen

NO.10 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $50,000 for the implementation charges.
Once the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $70,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 85%; Month 8
B. 85%; Month 9
C. 110%; Month 6
D. 110%; Month 8
Answer: C

EMC   E20-017 examen   E20-017

NO.11 The exhibit represents the expected financial results of a storage technology investment.
What does the ® ¯: represent?
A. Cost of investment equals the gain from the investment
B. Asset exceeds liability
C. Deployment cost crosses the planned deployment time
D. Return on investment
Answer: A

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NO.12 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. SLAs have been established
between the business and IT that define normal hours of operations for service as 8 A.M. - 8 P.M.,
Monday through Friday.
What is the availability (percentage) of Component 1?
A. 78
B. 81.7
C. 89
D. 91.7
Answer: B

EMC   E20-017 examen   certification E20-017   certification E20-017

NO.13 A company's IT department is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain legacy
equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing equipment with a new one.
Option 1:
-Total operation costs = $400,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,250,000 -Recurring annual operation costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $100,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which option would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
D. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-017   E20-017

NO.14 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components. Each component
must be functioning for the system to be operational.
What is the scheduled availability (percentage) for the system?
A. 84
B. 86
C. 88
D. 90
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-017   E20-017 examen   certification E20-017

NO.15 In the context of "establishing information availability," what is an operation management activity?
A. Capacity planning
B. Data classification
C. Testing
D. Implementation planning
Answer: A

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